ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY THE UNITY OF FORM AND FUNCTION 7TH ED BY SALADIN TEST BANK

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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY THE UNITY OF FORM AND FUNCTION 7TH ED BY SALADIN TEST BANK

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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY THE UNITY OF FORM AND FUNCTION 7TH ED BY SALADIN TEST BANK

Chapter 05

Histology

 

 

 

True / False Questions

 

  1. Mesoderm gives rise to muscle, bone, and blood.

 

  1. Columnar cells lining the small intestine have a brush border of microvilli on the apical surface.

 

 

 

  1. Nonkeratinized cells exfoliate from the surface of the skin.

 

  1. In an epithelium, there is almost no extracellular matrix.

 

  1. The clear gel that usually surrounds cells is called interstitial fluid.

 

  1. Fibrocartilage is found in intervertebral discs.

 

 

  1. Blood consists of cells and a ground substance made of formed elements.

 

 

 

  1. Plasma cells produce the ground substance that forms the matrix of connective tissues.

 

 

 

  1. Excitable cells respond to outside stimuli by means of changes in plasma membrane shape.

 

  1. Smooth and cardiac muscles are under involuntary control.

 

  1. Dendrites in a neuron send outgoing signals to other cells.

 

  1. Desmosomes are more effective than tight junctions in preventing substances from passing between cells.

 

  1. The duct of an endocrine gland leads into the bloodstream rather than onto an epithelial surface.

 

 

 

  1. The secretory product of a gland is produced by its parenchyma, not its stroma.

 

  1. Scar tissue helps to hold an organ together but does not restore normal function of the damaged tissue.

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. The four primary tissue types found in adult organs include all of the following except _________ tissue.
  2. connective
  3. fibrous
  4. nervous
  5. epithelial
  6. muscular

 

 

  1. The __________ gives rise to the __________.
  2. mesoderm; digestive glands
  3. endoderm; muscular system and skeletal system
  4. ectoderm; nervous system and epidermis
  5. endoderm; mesoderm
  6. mesoderm; endoderm

 

 

 

  1. The clear gel inside a cell is called __________.
  2. matrix
  3. ground substance
  4. interstitial fluid
  5. cytosol
  6. tissue fluid

 

 

 

  1. A thin, stained slice of tissue mounted on a microscope is called a __________.
  2. fixative
  3. histological section
  4. spread
  5. stain
  6. smear

 

 

  1. The histological section that divides a specimen along its long axis is called a(n) __________ section.
  2. cross
  3. oblique
  4. transverse
  5. sagittal
  6. longitudinal

 

 

 

  1. The covering of body surfaces and the lining of body cavities is composed of __________ tissue.
  2. interstitial
  3. muscle
  4. adipose
  5. epithelial
  6. nervous

 

 

 

 

  1. An epithelium whose cells are tall and narrow, with each one touching the basement membrane and reaching the apical surface, is called __________ epithelium.
  2. stratified squamous
  3. stratified cuboidal
  4. simple cuboidal
  5. simple columnar
  6. pseudostratified columnar

 

 

  1. The basement membrane is found between __________ and __________.
  2. epithelium; connective tissue
  3. epithelium; extracellular material
  4. epithelium; intracellular material
  5. extracellular material; intracellular material
  6. interstitial fluid; extracellular fluid

 

 

 

 

  1. Rapid diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the air sacs (alveoli) of the lungs takes place through __________ epithelium.
  2. simple squamous
  3. simple cuboidal
  4. simple columnar
  5. keratinized stratified squamous
  6. nonkeratinized stratified squamous

 

 

 

  1. Most kidney tubules are made of __________ epithelial tissue, which is specialized for absorption and secretion.
  2. simple columnar
  3. stratified columnar
  4. pseudostratified columnar
  5. simple cuboidal
  6. stratified cuboidal

 

 

  1. __________ epithelium is the most widespread epithelium in the body, whereas __________ epithelium is rare.
  2. Simple columnar; stratified columnar
  3. Stratified squamous; stratified columnar
  4. Pseudostratified; stratified squamous
  5. Simple cuboidal; stratified squamous
  6. Stratified squamous; simple squamous

 

 

  1. Some simple columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelia have _________ cells, which produce a protective mucous coating over the mucous membranes.
  2. fibrous
  3. blood
  4. basal
  5. keratinized
  6. goblet

 

 

 

  1. A brush border of microvilli is found in __________ epithelium, which can be found in the __________.
  2. pseudostratified; nasal cavity
  3. simple cuboidal; esophagus
  4. simple columnar; small intestine
  5. stratified squamous; anal canal
  6. stratified squamous; esophagus

 

 

 

  1. All cells in _______ epithelium reach the basement membrane, but only cells that reach the free surface have cilia.
  2. pseudostratified columnar
  3. simple columnar
  4. stratified columnar
  5. stratified cuboidal
  6. stratified squamous

 

 

 

  1. Found in the urinary bladder, __________ epithelium resembles __________ epithelium, but the apical cells are rounded, not flattened.
  2. transitional; stratified squamous
  3. stratified squamous; pseudostratified
  4. stratified squamous; stratified columnar
  5. simple columnar; pseudostratified
  6. transitional; simple cuboidal

 

 

 

  1. __________ epithelium provides a moist and slippery surface and is well suited to resist stress, as seen in the __________.
  2. Transitional; tongue
  3. Keratinized; tongue
  4. Nonkeratinized; skin
  5. Keratinized; skin
  6. Nonkeratinized; vagina

 

 

 

 

  1. __________ epithelium is associated with rapid transport of substances through a membrane, whereas __________ epithelium is associated with resistance to abrasion.
  2. Simple columnar; transitional
  3. Simple squamous; stratified squamous
  4. Simple cuboidal; pseudostratified
  5. Pseudostratified; simple squamous
  6. Pseudostratified; simple cuboidal

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a feature that almost all connective tissues have in common?
  2. Most cells are not in direct contact with each other.
  3. Ground substance is so scarce that it is not visible with a light microscope.
  4. Cells usually occupy less space than the extracellular material.
  5. Protein fibers are usually present in the ground substance.
  6. Most connective tissues are highly vascular.

 

 

 

 

  1. An example of a highly vascular tissue is __________ tissue. An example of a tissue that is not highly vascular is __________.
  2. epithelial; cartilage
  3. muscular; osseous tissue
  4. dense regular connective; dense irregular connective tissue
  5. areolar; cartilage
  6. nervous; osseous tissue

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a feature that connective tissues have in common?
  2. Very conspicuous fibers
  3. The presence of fibroblasts
  4. The presence of collagen
  5. Ground substance with a gelatinous to rubbery consistency
  6. A calcified matrix

 

 

 

  1. The shape of a persons external ear is due to the presence of __________.
  2. dense regular connective tissue
  3. dense irregular connective tissue
  4. elastic cartilage
  5. fibrocartilage
  6. ligaments

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a type of fibrous connective tissue?
  2. Reticular tissue
  3. Hyaline cartilage
  4. Dense regular connective tissue
  5. Dense irregular connective tissue
  6. Areolar tissue

 

 

  1. New triglycerides are constantly being synthesized and stored, while others are hydrolyzed and released into the circulation by the cells found in __________.
  2. blood
  3. fibrous connective tissue
  4. adipose tissue
  5. reticular tissue
  6. transitional tissue

 

 

 

  1. The rubbery matrix of cartilage is secreted by __________, whereas _________ produce the fibers and ground substance that form the matrix of fibrous connective tissue.
  2. chondroblasts; plasma cells
  3. mast cells; fibroblasts
  4. osteocytes; chondroblasts
  5. chondroblasts; fibroblasts
  6. adipocytes; plasma cells

 

 

 

 

  1. Marfan syndrome is a hereditary defect of elastin fibers. People with this syndrome have __________.
  2. hyperextensible joints
  3. a small cranium
  4. elastic bones
  5. stronger bones
  6. viscous blood

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following does not account for the gelatinous consistency of connective tissue ground substance?
  2. Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
  3. Proteoglycans
  4. Chondroitin sulfate
  5. Hyaluronic acid
  6. Collagen

 

 

  1. Collagenous fibers are very abundant in __________.
  2. blood and hyaline cartilage
  3. blood, adipose tissue, and osseous tissue
  4. ligaments, bones, and the most superficial portion of the skin
  5. tendons, ligaments, and the deeper portion of the skin
  6. areolar tissue, tongue, and bones

 

 

 

  1. Fibroblasts and protein fibers are associated with both __________ and __________.
  2. dense regular; dense irregular connective tissues
  3. plasma; formed elements
  4. elastic cartilage; hyaline cartilage
  5. spongy bone; compact (dense) bone
  6. adipose tissue; reticular tissue

 

 

  1. Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) help give the ground substance some of its qualities, including _________.
  2. helping to transfer charges in the nervous system
  3. holding water and maintaining electrolyte balance
  4. giving bone its brittle, inorganic structure
  5. providing the major structural support of tendons and ligaments
  6. acting as an energy reserve for muscle contraction

 

 

 

  1. Blood functions to __________________.
  2. allow for heart contraction and relaxation
  3. store energy for the heart
  4. provide support to the heart
  5. line the heart chambers
  6. transport nutrients to the tissues

 

 

  1. __________________ exhibits a lot of apparently empty space, and is found in many serous membranes.
  2. Blood
  3. Areolar tissue
  4. Osseous tissue
  5. Dense irregular connective tissue
  6. Adipose tissue

 

 

 

  1. __________________ tissues respond quickly to outside stimuli by means of changes in membrane potential.
  2. Excitable
  3. Responsive
  4. Adipose
  5. Epithelial
  6. Connective

 

 

 

  1. Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and __________.
  2. fibroblasts
  3. chondrocytes
  4. neuroglia
  5. myocytes
  6. osteocytes

 

 

 

  1. Astronauts in zero gravity are able to move food through their digestive tracts because __________.
  2. smooth muscle produces waves of contractions that propel material through the digestive tract
  3. skeletal muscle puts pressure on the digestive tract
  4. cardiac muscle maintains a high pressure that moves material through the digestive tract
  5. striated muscle creates a pressure gradient that forces material from one end of the digestive tract to the other
  6. skeletal muscle sphincters contract and allow materials to move through the digestive tract

 

 

  1. Skeletal muscle is described as __________.
  2. striated and voluntary
  3. striated and involuntary
  4. nonstriated and voluntary
  5. nonstriated and involuntary
  6. fibrous and containing ground substance

 

 

 

  1. A connective tissue fiber refers to a(n) __________, a nerve fiber refers to a(n) __________, and a muscle fiber refers to a(n) __________.
  2. entire cell; organelle; tissue
  3. organelle; entire cell; part of a cell
  4. organelle; entire cell; complex of macromolecules
  5. complex of macromolecules; entire cell; part of a cell
  6. complex of macromolecules; part of a cell; entire cell

 

 

 

 

  1. In the intestine, __________ ensure(s) that most digested nutrients pass through the epithelial cells and not between them.
  2. the plasma membrane
  3. desmosomes
  4. tight junctions
  5. gap (communicating) junctions
  6. ground substance

 

 

 

  1. __________ secrete __________ into __________.
  2. Goblet cells; mucus; the blood
  3. Endocrine glands; hormones; ducts
  4. Exocrine glands; hormones; ducts
  5. Endocrine glands; hormones; the blood
  6. Exocrine glands; mucus; the blood

 

 

  1. Mucin is secreted by__________ glands, which combines with water to form a thick and sticky product. _________ glands produce a relatively watery fluid.
  2. mucous; serous
  3. merocrine; holocrine
  4. apocrine; mixed
  5. endocrine; exocrine
  6. serous; mucous

 

 

 

  1. __________ glands (such as tear glands) have vesicles that release their secretion via exocytosis. __________ glands (such as oil-producing glands) secrete a mixture of disintegrated cells and their products.
  2. Endocrine; Exocrine
  3. Mucous; Serous
  4. Cytogenic; Apocrine
  5. Mucous; Cutaneous
  6. Merocrine; Holocrine

 

 

 

  1. Glands that have branched ducts and secretory cells that form sacs at one end of the ducts are classified as ___________ glands.
  2. areolar
  3. simple acinar
  4. simple coiled tubular
  5. compound acinar
  6. compound tubuloacinar

 

 

 

  1. The membrane that lines the lumenal surfaces of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts consists of _________.
  2. simple squamous epithelium and dense irregular connective tissue
  3. areolar and dense irregular connective tissue
  4. epithelium and lamina propria
  5. areolar tissue and lamina propria
  6. simple squamous epithelium and areolar tissue

 

 

 

 

  1. Most membranes are composed of two or three tissue types. However, an example of an exception is the ___________ membrane.
  2. mucous
  3. serous
  4. synovial
  5. cutaneous
  6. basement

 

 

 

  1. The membrane that lines passageways that open to the exterior environment is called __________.
  2. the lamina propria
  3. endothelium
  4. a synovial membrane
  5. a serous membrane (serosa)
  6. a mucous membrane (mucosa)

 

 

 

 

  1. After six months of lifting weights at the gym, you notice that some of your muscles have increased in size. This increase in size is due to __________ of muscle cells.
  2. hyperplasia
  3. neoplasia
  4. hypertrophy
  5. metaplasia
  6. atrophy

 

 

 

  1. The middle primary germ layer is called __________, which gives rise to a gelatinous material called __________, which then gives rise to different types of connective tissue such as bone, muscle, and blood.
  2. ectoderm; stem cells
  3. mesoderm; mesenchyme
  4. endoderm; mesenchyme
  5. mesoderm; fibroblasts
  6. ectoderm; mesenchyme

 

 

  1. Most biologists see embryonic stem (ES) cells as a possible treatment for diseases that result from the loss of functional cells. This possibility is based on the fact that ES cells are __________ stem cells.
  2. unipotent
  3. multipotent
  4. pluripotent
  5. totipotent
  6. omnipotent

 

 

 

  1. The pseudostratified columnar epithelium of the bronchi in smokers may transform into stratified squamous epithelium. This is an example of __________.
  2. neoplasia
  3. metaplasia
  4. atrophy
  5. differentiation
  6. hyperplasia

 

 

  1. With regard to the healing of a skin wound, macrophages ___________.
  2. release histamine to increase blood flow to the area
  3. produce and secrete collagenous fibers
  4. phagocytize and digest tissue debris
  5. stimulate epithelial cells to multiply
  6. make capillaries more permeable allowing white blood cells to migrate into the area

 

 

  1. It is normal for breasts to shrink after lactation ceases. This is a consequence of __________ in human breast cells.
  2. necrosis
  3. apoptosis
  4. atrophy
  5. infarction
  6. gangrene

 

 

 

  1. The replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue is called _________.
  2. necrosis
  3. apoptosis
  4. gangrene
  5. regeneration
  6. fibrosis

 

 

 

Chapter 07

Bone Tissue

 

 

True / False Questions

 

  1. Most blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones.

 

 

  1. A vertebra is considered an irregular bone.

 

 

  1. A radiograph (X-ray) of a childs hand will show epiphyseal lines.

 

 

  1. The hemopoietic tissue in a bone is otherwise known as myeloid tissue.

 

 

  1. Concentric lamellae within an osteon are connected by lacunae.

 

  1. Osteogenic cells are bone stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

 

 

  1. Osteoid tissue is similar to bone except for a lack of minerals.

 

 

  1. Intramembranous ossification is common in children, whereas endochondral ossification is typical in young adults.

 

 

  1. Bones grow in diameter by interstitial growth.

 

 

  1. Hypercalcemia causes depression of the nervous system.

 

 

 

 

  1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) binds to receptors on osteoblasts.

 

 

  1. Hypercalcemia is rare, but hypocalcemia can result from a wide variety of conditions.

 

 

 

 

  1. Closed reduction is the surgical realignment of the parts of a broken bone.

 

 

  1. Osteomalacia results in bone brittleness.

 

 

  1. Osteoporosis often leads to an exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature, which is called kyphosis.

 

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton?
  2. Storage of calcium and phosphate ions
  3. Storage of red blood cells
  4. Providing support for most muscles
  5. Protecting the brain
  6. Protecting the spinal cord

 

 

 

  1. Osseous tissue is a(an) ____________ tissue.
  2. connective
  3. epithelial
  4. dense regular
  5. dense irregular
  6. reticular

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following tissues is not found as part of a long bone?
  2. Osseous tissue
  3. Nervous tissue
  4. Adipose tissue
  5. Cartilage
  6. Transitional epithelium

 

 

 

  1. The center cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is called the __________.
  2. marrow cavity
  3. central canal
  4. nutrient foramen
  5. canaliculus
  6. epiphysis

 

 

 

  1. The thin layer of compact bone that separates an adults epiphysis from the diaphysis is called the __________.
  2. periosteum
  3. metaphysis
  4. growth plate
  5. epiphyseal line
  6. diaphyseal line

 

 

 

  1. The cortex of the long bones diaphysis is made of _________.
  2. marrow
  3. compact bone
  4. spongy bone
  5. dense regular connective tissue
  6. articular cartilage

 

 

  1. The expanded head at each end of a long bone is called the __________.
  2. epiphysis
  3. diaphysis
  4. articular cartilage
  5. periosteum
  6. endosteum

 

 

 

  1. A long bone is covered externally with a sheath called the __________, whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the __________.
  2. epiphysis; diaphysis
  3. diaphysis; epiphysis
  4. compact bone; spongy bone
  5. periosteum; endosteum
  6. endosteum; periosteum

 

 

 

 

  1. Bone-forming cells are called __________.
  2. osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells
  3. osteoblasts
  4. osteoclasts
  5. osteocytes
  6. osteons

 

 

 

  1. When ____________ become enclosed in lacunae, they become cells called _____________.
  2. osteogenic cells; osteoblasts
  3. osteoblasts; osteoclasts
  4. osteoblasts; osteocytes
  5. osteocytes; osteoclasts
  6. osteocytes; osteoblasts

 

 

 

 

  1. The spaces found within the concentric lamellae are called __________, and they contain __________.
  2. canaliculi; osteoblasts
  3. osteons; stem cells
  4. lacunae; osteocytes
  5. lacunae; osteoclasts
  6. central canals; osteocytes

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an inorganic component of the bone matrix?
  2. Proteoglycans
  3. Glycoproteins
  4. Collagen
  5. Hydroxyapatite
  6. Glycosaminoglycans

 

 

  1. Spicules and trabeculae are found in __________.
  2. compact bone
  3. bone matrix
  4. yellow bone marrow
  5. red bone marrow
  6. spongy bone

 

 

 

  1. Red bone marrow does not contain __________.
  2. myeloid tissue
  3. yellow bone marrow
  4. hemopoietic tissue
  5. white blood cells
  6. red blood cells

 

 

  1. The hardness of bone comes from __________, whereas __________ provide(s) some degree of flexibility.
  2. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins
  3. collagen and elastic fibers; minerals
  4. glycoproteins; proteoglycans
  5. calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate
  6. proteins; collagen

 

 

 

  1. The plasma membrane of __________ have a ruffled border with many deep infoldings, whereas __________ have long, thin, fingerlike cytoplasmic processes.
  2. osteoclasts; osteocytes
  3. osteocytes; osteoclasts
  4. osteoblasts; osteoclasts
  5. osteoblasts; osteocytes
  6. osteocytes; osteogenic cells

 

 

  1. What would you find in the marrow cavity of the diaphysis of an adult humerus (arm bone)?
  2. Periosteum
  3. Hemopoietic tissue
  4. Red bone marrow
  5. Yellow bone marrow
  6. Compact bone

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes?
  2. Osteoblasts
  3. Osteoclasts
  4. Osteocytes
  5. Osteogenic cells
  6. Stem cells

 

 

  1. It is common to find __________ in compact bone, but they are not seen in spongy bone.
  2. lamellae
  3. osteoclasts
  4. lacunae
  5. central canals
  6. osteocytes

 

 

 

  1. Intramembranous ossification produces the __________.
  2. irregular bones of the vertebrae
  3. flat bones of the skull
  4. long bones of the limbs
  5. short bones of the wrist
  6. short bones of the ankle

 

 

 

  1. In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is __________, which is replaced by bone.
  2. embryonic mesenchyme
  3. fibrous membranes
  4. hyaline cartilage
  5. transitional epithelium
  6. fibrocartilage

 

 

 

  1. The __________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where, in children and adolescents, bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage.
  2. metaphysis
  3. primary ossification center
  4. secondary ossification center
  5. osteoid tissue
  6. epiphyseal line

 

 

  1. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a hereditary condition, in which the long bones of the limbs fail to elongate normally because of reduced hyperplasia and hypertrophy of cartilage in the __________.
  2. primary ossification center
  3. secondary ossification center
  4. primary bone marrow
  5. secondary bone marrow
  6. epiphyseal plate

 

 

 

  1. Chondrocytes multiply in the zone of __________ of the metaphysis.
  2. reserve cartilage
  3. cell proliferation
  4. cell hypertrophy
  5. calcification
  6. bone deposition

 

 

  1. Mature bones are remodeled throughout life via a process known as __________.
  2. intramembranous ossification
  3. endochondral ossification
  4. interstitial growth
  5. appositional growth
  6. metaphysical growth

 

 

 

  1. Bone elongation is a result of __________.
  2. cartilage growth
  3. muscle growth
  4. osseous tissue growth
  5. fibrous membrane addition
  6. dense irregular connective tissue addition

 

 

 

 

  1. Wolffs law of bone explains the effect of __________.
  2. different diets on bone elongation
  3. mechanical stress on bone remodeling
  4. temperature on bone growth
  5. age on bone thickening
  6. sex on bone widening

 

 

 

  1. A growing long bone in a child has only two areas of cartilage at the epiphysis. These two areas are the __________.
  2. elastic cartilage and epiphyseal plate
  3. epiphyseal plate and epiphyseal line
  4. primary and secondary ossification centers
  5. fibrocartilage and articular cartilage
  6. articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate

 

 

  1. The process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream is known as _________.
  2. mineralization
  3. mineral deposition
  4. crystallization
  5. resorption
  6. ossification

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following exemplifies a positive feedback process happening in bone mineral deposition?
  2. The first few crystals that form attract more calcium and phosphate.
  3. Osteoblasts neutralize inhibitors that prevent bone resorption.
  4. Osteoclasts secrete acid phosphatase that digests collagen.
  5. Collagen is digested by enzymes and hydroxyapatite by hydrochloric acid.
  6. Solubility product is reached in the tissue fluids.

 

 

  1. Phosphate is necessary for all of the following except __________.
  2. ATP
  3. DNA
  4. phospholipids
  5. RNA
  6. amino acids

 

 

 

  1. Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except __________.
  2. muscle contraction
  3. exocytosis
  4. blood clotting
  5. DNA synthesis
  6. communication among neurons

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
  2. Promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys
  3. Stimulate osteoclast activity
  4. Lower blood calcium
  5. Promote calcitriol synthesis
  6. Inhibit osteoblast activity

 

 

 

  1. Synthesized by the combined action of the skin, kidneys, and liver, _________ is important to the deposition of bone.
  2. growth hormone
  3. testosterone
  4. estrogen
  5. calcitonin
  6. calcitriol

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following does not put women at risk for hypocalcemia?
  2. Lactation
  3. Pregnancy
  4. Removal of the parathyroid glands
  5. Removal of the thyroid gland
  6. Lack of exposure to UV radiation

 

 

 

  1. Blood Ca2+ deficiency stimulates __________ secretion, which leads to __________.
  2. calcitonin; more urinary phosphate reabsorption
  3. calcitriol; more urinary phosphate excretion
  4. parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity
  5. growth hormone; increased osteoblast activity
  6. thyroid hormone; less urinary calcium excretion

 

 

 

 

  1. Hypocalcemia can cause __________.
  2. emotional disturbances
  3. depression of the nervous system
  4. muscle weakness
  5. sluggish reflexes
  6. muscle spasms

 

 

 

  1. Arteriosclerosis is one example of ectopic ossification, which means __________.
  2. the solubility product has been reached
  3. artery mineralization by osteoblasts
  4. abnormal calcification of a tissue
  5. accumulation of collagenous fibers in blood vessels
  6. ossification of an entire blood vessel

 

 

 

 

  1. If a thyroid tumor secreted an excessive amount of calcitonin, we would expect ___________.
  2. an elevated level of osteoclast activity
  3. an elevated level of osteoblast activity
  4. a reduced rate of endochondral ossification
  5. a rise in blood calcium concentration
  6. increasingly brittle bones

 

 

 

  1. A soft callus forms during ___________.
  2. endochondral ossification
  3. intramembranous ossification
  4. bone growth at the metaphysis
  5. the remodeling of bone
  6. the healing of a fracture

 

 

 

 

  1. Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of ___________, which would otherwise inhibit ____________.
  2. dietary calcium; estrogen production
  3. osteoblasts; osteoclast activity
  4. estrogen; osteoclast activity
  5. parathyroid hormone; osteocyte activity
  6. exercise; osteoblast activity

 

 

 

  1. A fracture in which the bone is broken into three or more pieces is called a __________ fracture.
  2. linear
  3. pott
  4. comminuted
  5. greenstick
  6. compound

 

 

  1. The result of blood calcium and phosphate levels being too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called __________ in children and __________ in adults.
  2. osteomalacia; rickets
  3. rickets; osteomalacia
  4. osteoporosis; osteomalacia
  5. osteomyelitis; osteosarcoma
  6. osteomyelitis; osteomalacia

 

 

 

  1. Bone protrudes through the skin in a fracture called __________.
  2. complete
  3. incomplete
  4. closed
  5. open
  6. displaced

 

 

 

 

  1. A break in a bone that is already weakened by some other disease is called a(n) __________ fracture.
  2. greenstick
  3. open
  4. closed
  5. pathologic
  6. displaced

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture?
  2. Bone remodeling soft callus formation hard callus formation hematoma formation
  3. Bone remodeling hard callus formation soft callus formation hematoma formation
  4. Hematoma formation soft callus formation hard callus formation bone remodeling
  5. Hematoma formation hard callus formation soft callus formation bone remodeling
  6. Soft callus formation hard callus formation hematoma formation bone remodeling

 

 

 

  1. Patches of fibrocartilage formed in the healing of a fracture are called __________, whereas the bony collar formed around the fracture is called __________.
  2. fracture hematoma; granulation tissue
  3. granulation tissue; soft callus
  4. fracture hematoma; hard callus
  5. granulation tissue; hard callus
  6. soft callus; hard callus

 

 

 

  1. The most common bone disease is __________.
  2. osteomyelitis
  3. osteoporosis
  4. osteosarcoma
  5. osteomalacia
  6. rickets

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 21

The Lymphatic and Immune Systems

 

 

True / False Questions

 

  1. Lymph originates in blood capillaries that pick up tissue fluid.

 

  1. Red bone marrow is the point of origin of all immune cells of the lymphatic system.

 

 

 

  1. Mucous membranes prevent most pathogens from entering the body because of the stickiness of the mucus and the presence of lysozymes.

 

  1. Interferons are secreted in response to bacterial infections.

 

  1. Pus is made of dead neutrophils, macrophages, and other tissue debris from a damaged tissue.

 

  1. Pyrogens act by increasing the set point for body temperature in the thalamus.

 

  1. The antigenicity of a molecule is due to specific regions of it called haptens.

 

  1. Interleukins are chemical signals by which immune cells communicate with each other.

 

 

 

  1. Helper T cells respond only to epitopes attached to MHC proteins.

 

  1. Cytotoxic T cells respond only to antigens bound to MHC-I proteins.

 

  1. Clonal selection of T cells happens in the thymus.

 

  1. Naive T cells can synthesize antibodies.

 

  1. Humoral immunity takes care of intracellular viruses, whereas cellular immunity takes care of extracellular viruses.

 

  1. Most Memory B cells are found circulating in the lymph.

 

  1. Some antibodies against foreign antigens can react to similar self-antigens, causing an autoimmune disease.

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. Lymphatic vessels recover about __________ of the fluid filtered by capillaries.
  2. 5%
  3. 15%
  4. 25%
  5. 50%
  6. 85%

 

 

 

  1. Lymph is similar to blood plasma, but very low in __________.
  2. protein
  3. carbon dioxide
  4. metabolic waste
  5. electrolytes
  6. sodium and potassium

 

 

 

  1. Special lymphatic vessels, called lacteals, absorb dietary __________ that are not absorbed by the blood capillaries.
  2. water
  3. glucose
  4. vitamins
  5. amino acids
  6. lipids

 

 

  1. The __________ tonsils are the largest, and their surgical removal (tonsillectomy) used to be one of the most common surgical procedures performed in children.
  2. adenoid
  3. lingual
  4. palatine
  5. pharyngeal
  6. nasopharyngeal

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following forces does not help lymph to flow?
  2. Rhythmic contractions of lymphatic vessels
  3. The thoracic pump
  4. The skeletal muscle pump
  5. The lymphatic node pump
  6. Arterial pulsations squeezing lymphatic vessels

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not an example of lymphatic tissue?
  2. Peyer patches
  3. MALT
  4. Lymphatic nodules
  5. Macrophages
  6. Diffuse lymphatic tissue

 

 

 

  1. __________ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels, and they empty into the __________.
  2. Lymphatic trunks; collecting ducts
  3. Lymphatic trunks; subclavian arteries
  4. Lymphatic trunks; subclavian veins
  5. Collecting ducts; subclavian veins
  6. Collecting ducts; subclavian arteries

 

 

 

 

  1. Immune surveillance is a process in which __________ nonspecifically detect and destroy foreign cells and diseased host cells.
  2. T lymphocytes (T cells)
  3. reticular cells
  4. dendritic cells
  5. macrophages
  6. natural killer (NK) cells

 

 

 

  1. The __________ show(s) a remarkable degree of degeneration (involution) with age.
  2. lymph nodes
  3. thymus
  4. spleen
  5. pharyngeal tonsils
  6. appendix

 

 

 

 

  1. The only lymphatic organ(s) with afferent lymphatic vessels is(are) the __________.
  2. lymph nodes
  3. thymus
  4. spleen
  5. red bone marrow
  6. tonsils

 

 

 

  1. Removal of the __________ would be more harmful to a one-year-old child than an adult.
  2. spleen
  3. lymph node
  4. thymus
  5. appendix
  6. palatine tonsil

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following does(do) not belong to the second line of defense?
  2. The macrophage system
  3. Natural killer cells
  4. Inflammation
  5. The gastric juices
  6. Interferon and the complement system

 

 

 

  1. __________ lacks the capacity to remember a pathogen or react differently to it in the future, whereas __________ utilizes memory cells to adapt to a given pathogen and ward it off more easily in the future.
  2. Nonspecific resistance; cytotoxicity
  3. Adaptive immunity; nonspecific resistance
  4. A natural killer cell; a cytoxic T cell
  5. Nonspecific resistance; adaptive immunity
  6. Adaptive immunity; specific immunity

 

 

 

  1. __________ are found especially in the mucous membrane, standing guard against parasites and allergens.
  2. Monocytes
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Basophils
  5. Neutrophils
  6. Eosinophils

 

 

 

  1. ___________ employ a respiratory burst to produce bactericidal chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and hypochlorite (HClO).
  2. Neutrophils
  3. Basophils
  4. Cytotoxic T cells
  5. Natural killer cells
  6. Suppressor T cells

 

 

  1. Complement fixation cannot lead to __________.
  2. enhanced inflammation
  3. opsonization
  4. endogenous pyrexia
  5. bacterial phagocytosis
  6. cytolysis

 

 

 

  1. __________ are secreted by cells infected with viruses, alerting neighboring cells and protecting them from becoming infected.
  2. Complement system globulins
  3. Interferons
  4. Granzymes
  5. Pyrogens
  6. Perforins

 

 

 

  1. When an enemy cell is present, a(n) __________ secrete perforins, which bore a hole in the enemy cell membrane.
  2. interferon
  3. interleukin
  4. natural killer cell
  5. antibody
  6. opsonization

 

 

 

  1. A pyrogen is a substance that causes __________.
  2. inflammation
  3. opsonization
  4. complement fixation
  5. cytolysis
  6. fever

 

 

 

  1. The first of a series of neutrophil behaviors in inflammation is __________.
  2. chemotaxis
  3. margination
  4. diapedesis
  5. phagocytosis
  6. opsonization

 

 

 

  1. __________ is not a cardinal sign characteristic of inflammation.
  2. Impaired use
  3. Redness
  4. Pain
  5. Heat
  6. Swelling

 

 

  1. Basophils of the blood help to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly by releasing an anticoagulant called __________ and a vasodilator called __________.
  2. bradykinin; histamine
  3. selectin; prostaglandin
  4. histamine; heparin
  5. heparin; histamine
  6. prostaglandins; selectin

 

 

 

  1. Which of these cellular agents does not participate in inflammation?
  2. Cytotoxic T cells
  3. Macrophage
  4. Eosinophils
  5. Neutrophils
  6. Endothelial cells

 

 

  1. One group of proteolytic enzymes secreted by natural killer (NK) cells is __________.
  2. selectins
  3. cytokines
  4. granzymes
  5. perforins
  6. interferons

 

 

 

  1. Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by __________ during a process called __________.
  2. lymphocytes and monocytes; opsonization
  3. neutrophils and macrophages; cytolysis
  4. mast cells and basophils; opsonization
  5. mast cells and basophils; cytolysis
  6. neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization

 

 

  1. __________ are antimicrobial proteins.
  2. Bradykinins
  3. Interferons
  4. Cytokines
  5. Kinins
  6. Prostaglandins

 

 

 

  1. One characteristic of the immune response is specificity. This means that __________.
  2. immunity starts in defined organs in the body
  3. immunity starts in specialized tissues in the body
  4. immunity is carried on by a specific group of cells of the immune system
  5. immunity is directed against a particular pathogen
  6. immunity is carried on by a specific group of tissues of the immune system

 

 

 

  1. Vaccination stimulates __________ immunity.
  2. natural active
  3. artificial active
  4. natural passive
  5. artificial passive
  6. nonspecific

 

 

 

  1. Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity is effective against __________.
  2. allergens
  3. venoms
  4. cancer cells
  5. extracellular viruses
  6. toxins

 

 

 

  1. A(n) __________ is the region of the molecule that is recognized by antibodies.
  2. epitope
  3. antigen
  4. hapten
  5. major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
  6. antibody monomer

 

 

 

  1. T cells achieve immunocompetence in the __________.
  2. bone marrow
  3. bloodstream
  4. spleen
  5. thymus
  6. liver

 

 

  1. T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus, which means they __________.
  2. react against self antigens
  3. develop surface antigen receptors
  4. remain alive but unresponsive
  5. die and macrophages phagocytize them
  6. multiply and form clones of identical T cells

 

 

 

  1. The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates __________ immunity.
  2. artificial passive
  3. artificial active
  4. natural passive
  5. natural active
  6. artificial specific

 

 

 

  1. The majority of T cells of the naive lymphocyte pool wait for the encounter with foreign antigens in the __________.
  2. plasma
  3. thymus
  4. lymphatic tissues
  5. lymph
  6. blood plasma

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following cannot act as antigen-presenting cells?
  2. Reticular cells
  3. Dendritic cells
  4. Macrophages
  5. B cells
  6. T cells

 

 

  1. Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n) __________.
  2. hapten
  3. immunoglobulin
  4. natural killer cell
  5. major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein
  6. basophil

 

 

 

  1. Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in the _____________.
  2. blood plasma
  3. lymph nodes
  4. thymus
  5. red bone marrow
  6. liver

 

 

 

  1. Helper T (TH) cells do not __________.
  2. secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of B cells
  3. secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of cytotoxic T cells
  4. secrete cytokines that stimulate macrophage activity
  5. secrete inflammatory chemicals
  6. secrete fever-producing chemicals

 

 

 

  1. __________ participate in both nonspecific resistance and immune response.
  2. Memory T (TM) cells
  3. Regulatory T (TR) cells
  4. Natural killer (NK) cells
  5. Helper T (TH) cells
  6. Cytotoxic T (TC) cells

 

 

  1. Cytotoxic T (TC) cells are like natural killer (NK) cells because they both __________.
  2. secrete interferons
  3. secrete granzymes and perforin
  4. participate in the immune response
  5. participate in nonspecific resistance
  6. secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

 

 

 

  1. Memory T cells can be up to __________ old.
  2. weeks
  3. days
  4. decades
  5. years
  6. months

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is something antibodies do not do?
  2. Link antigen molecules together
  3. Neutralize antigens by binding to regions of an antigen that can be pathogenic
  4. Bind to enemy cells, thus changing their shape so their complement-binding sites are exposed
  5. Differentiate into memory antibodies, which upon reexposure to the same pathogen would mount a quicker attack
  6. Bind antigen molecules of two or more enemy cells and stick them together

 

 

 

  1. Which is the correct sequence of events in the humoral immune response?
  2. Antigen recognition antigen presentation differentiation clonal selection attack
  3. Antigen recognition antigen presentation clonal selection differentiation attack
  4. Antigen presentation antigen recognition clonal selection differentiation attack
  5. Antigen presentation antigen recognition clonal selection attack differentiation
  6. Antigen recognition differentiation antigen presentation clonal selection attack

 

 

  1. Each immunoglobulin (Ig) has __________ antigen-bonding site(s).
  2. two
  3. four
  4. six
  5. one
  6. three

 

 

 

  1. __________ constitutes about 80% of circulating antibodies in plasma.
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgA
  5. IgM
  6. IgG

 

 

 

 

  1. Which class of immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the newborn?
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgM
  5. IgA
  6. IgG

 

 

 

  1. Before B cells secrete antibodies, they differentiate into _________.
  2. stem cells
  3. antigen-presenting cells
  4. plasma cells
  5. T cells
  6. macrophages

 

 

 

  1. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets mainly __________.
  2. helper T cells
  3. B cells
  4. plasma cells
  5. cytotoxic T cells
  6. natural killer cells

 

 

 

  1. Most common allergies are the result of __________.
  2. autoimmune diseases
  3. type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
  4. type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity
  5. type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic) hypersensitivity
  6. type I (acute) hypersensitivity

 

 

 

  1. Beta cell destruction that causes type 1 diabetes mellitus is a(n) __________.
  2. anaphylactic hypersensitivity
  3. type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
  4. type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity
  5. type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic) hypersensitivity
  6. type I (acute) hypersensitivity

 

 

 

  1. A person who is HIV-positive and has a helper T (TH) cell count lower than __________ has AIDS.
  2. 20,000 cells/L
  3. 5,000 cells/L
  4. 1,000 cells/L
  5. 200 cells/L
  6. 50 cells/L

 

 

  1. Autoimmune diseases are disorders in which the immune system fails to distinguish __________ from foreign ones.
  2. self-immunoglobulins
  3. self-antibodies
  4. self-antigens
  5. self-interleukins
  6. self-complement proteins

 

 

 

  1. Bronchoconstriction, dyspnea, and widespread vasodilation are all characteristics of __________.
  2. local anaphylaxis
  3. anaphylactic shock
  4. autoimmune disease
  5. an HIV infection
  6. AIDS

 

 

 

 

Chapter 29

Human Development and Aging

 

 

True / False Questions

 

  1. Sperm must travel to the distal end of the uterine tube to encounter the egg before it dies.

 

  1. The slow block refers to the mechanism that prevents fertilization of another egg when one is already pregnant.

 

  1. The fertilization membrane is the endometrial tissue that receives the conceptus.

 

  1. Cleavage results in daughter cells containing half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.

 

  1. During implantation, the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation.

 

  1. The embryonic stage extends from 16 days through the end of week 8.

 

  1. The chorion forms the fetal part of the placenta.

 

 

 

  1. The placenta begins to form after week 8.

 

  1. Trophoblastic nutrition refers to the nutrition of the conceptus before it implants.

 

  1. Neonatal immunity depends on IgG and IgA acquired through the placenta and colostrum, respectively.

 

  1. To some extent, the heat loss of the neonate is compensated for by the thermal insulation provided by brown fat.

 

  1. Inadequate liver function is the most common reason that premature infants suffer from multiple dysfunctions.

 

  1. Teratogens usually do not cause congenital anomalies.

 

 

 

  1. Senescence begins at different ages and progresses at different rates in different organ systems.

 

  1. Life expectancy has steadily increased in the last century, whereas life span has not.

 

  1. A person in his or her 90s can increase muscle strength by two or three times with 40 minutes of isometric exercise per week.

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. Which of the folllowing lists the stages or structures of prenatal development in the correct order?
  2. Cleavage, zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus
  3. Zygote, morula, blastocyst, cleavage, embryo, fetus
  4. Zygote, cleavage, morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus
  5. Zygote, embryo, morula, blastocyst, cleavage, fetus
  6. Embryo, zygote, blastocyst, cleavage, morula, fetus

 

 

 

  1. The process that makes it possible for sperm to penetrate the egg is called __________.
  2. sperm migration
  3. capacitation
  4. the cortical reaction
  5. morulation
  6. cleavage

 

 

 

  1. In the slow block to polyspermy, sperm penetration releases an inflow of __________, which in turn stimulates the __________.
  2. Cl-; corona radiata
  3. K+; zona pellucida
  4. Na+; fertilization membrane
  5. Ca2+; fertilization membrane
  6. Ca2+; cortical reaction

 

 

  1. In the fast block to polyspermy, binding of sperm opens up __________ channels, which depolarizes the egg membrane and __________.
  2. Na+; prevents the entrance of any more sperm
  3. Na+; prevents the entrance of more Na+
  4. Na+; prevents the entrance of Ca2+
  5. Ca2+; prevents the entrance of any more sperm
  6. Ca2+; prevents the entrance of more Na+

 

 

 

  1. Regarding fertilization, which of the following events happens first?
  2. Formation of a fertilization membrane
  3. The fast block to polyspermy
  4. The slow block to polyspermy
  5. The cortical reaction
  6. The acrosomal reaction

 

 

 

  1. The optimal window of opportunity to conceive a child is __________.
  2. a few days before ovulation to less than a day after
  3. less than a day before ovulation to less than a day after
  4. a few days before ovulation to a few days after
  5. a few days before ovulation
  6. a few days after ovulation

 

 

 

  1. The spheroidal stage of early prenatal development with about 16 to 64 cells is called a(n) __________.
  2. zygote
  3. embryo
  4. blastomere
  5. morula
  6. blastocyst

 

 

  1. Twins produced when a single egg is fertilized are called __________ twins. Twins produced from two eggs ovulated at the same time are called __________ twins.
  2. monozygotic; identical
  3. dizygotic; nonidentical
  4. monozygotic; dizygotic
  5. dizygotic; monozygotic
  6. nonidentical; identical

 

 

 

  1. In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become __________, whereas the embryoblast will become __________.
  2. part of the placenta; the yolk sac
  3. part of the placenta; the embryo
  4. the embryo; part of the placenta
  5. the embryo; the yolk sac
  6. the yolk sac; the embryo

 

 

 

  1. Primary germ layers are formed during __________
  2. implantation
  3. cleavage
  4. conception
  5. organogenesis
  6. gastrulation

 

 

 

  1. Mesenchyme gives rise to __________.
  2. nervous tissue
  3. muscle, bone, and blood
  4. digestive organs and endocrine glands
  5. reproductive and urinary systems
  6. the integumentary system and exocrine glands

 

 

 

  1. During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a deep layer called the _________, which is composed of individual cells.
  2. chorion
  3. amnion
  4. syncytiotrophoblast
  5. cytotrophoblast
  6. embryoblast

 

 

 

  1. During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a superficial layer called the __________, which is composed of a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm.
  2. chorion
  3. embryoblast
  4. amnion
  5. syncytiotrophoblast
  6. cytotrophoblast

 

 

 

  1. By the time the conceptus arrives in the uterus, it consists of at least __________ or more cells.
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 8
  5. 16
  6. 32

 

 

 

  1. Out of the 300 million ejaculated sperm, only about __________ reach the vicinity of the egg.
  2. 20 to 30
  3. 200 to 300
  4. 2000 to 3000
  5. 20,000 to 30,000
  6. half

 

 

  1. Prior to ejaculation, __________ in the plasma membrane of the sperm prevents premature release of __________.
  2. cholesterol; acrosomal enzymes
  3. protein; acrosomal enzymes
  4. carbohydrates; prostaglandins
  5. hyaluronic acid; prostaglandins
  6. acrosin and hyaluronidase; acrosomal enzymes

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a derivative of ectoderm?
  2. Salivary glands
  3. The nervous system
  4. The epidermis
  5. Cutaneous glands
  6. The dermis

 

 

 

  1. The first body cavity is called the __________.
  2. coelom
  3. amniotic cavity
  4. yolk sac
  5. somite
  6. chorion

 

 

 

  1. By the end of 8 weeks, the individual is considered a fetus because __________.
  2. all the primary germ layers are formed
  3. the amniotic cavity has formed
  4. all of the organ systems are present
  5. the neural tube and yolk sac have formed
  6. the mesoderm has formed

 

 

  1. The __________ completely encloses the embryo and provides it with a stable environment.
  2. yolk sac
  3. amnion
  4. chorion
  5. chorionic villus
  6. allantois

 

 

 

  1. The __________ encloses all the rest of the membranes and the embryo.
  2. chorion
  3. allantois
  4. yolk sac
  5. amnion
  6. zona pellucida

 

 

 

  1. The __________ is an embryonic membrane that serves as the origin of the first blood and germ cells.
  2. yolk sac
  3. allantois
  4. chorion
  5. amnion
  6. placenta

 

 

 

  1. As it implants, the conceptus is nourished by means of __________.
  2. trophoblastic nutrition
  3. uterine milk
  4. nutrient diffusion from t

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