Anatomy And Physiology 6th Edition By Elaine N. Marieb Test Bank

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Anatomy And Physiology 6th Edition By Elaine N. Marieb Test Bank

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WITH ANSWERS

Anatomy And Physiology 6th Edition By Elaine N. Marieb Test Bank

CHAPTER  2

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule? 1)
A) H2O B) NaOH C) NaCl D) CH4
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
2) The basic structural material of the body consists of ________. 2)
A) nucleic acids B) proteins C) lipids D) carbohydrates
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
3) The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________. 3)
A) sequence of the nucleotides
B) three-dimensional structure of the double helix
C) arrangement of the histones
D) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
4) The single most abundant protein in the body is ________. 4)
A) glucose B) DNA C) collagen D) hemoglobin
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
1
5) Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the
outside and inside of a cell, which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most
sense?
5)
A) two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the non-polar tails facing out on both sides
B) a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing inside the cell
C) a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing outside the cell
D) two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
6) Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction. 6)
A) decomposition B) exchange C) synthesis D) reversible
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
7) Which of the following is an example of a suspension? 7)
A) salt water B) cytosol C) blood D) rubbing alcohol
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
8) Sucrose is a ________. 8)
A) polysaccharide B) triglyceride
C) disaccharide D) monosaccharide
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
9) In a DNA molecule, the phosphate serves ________. 9)
A) to hold the molecular backbone together B) to bind the sugars to their bases
C) as nucleotides D) as a code
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
2
10) How many phosphates would AMP have attached to it? 10)
A) one B) two C) none D) three
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
11) Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells? 11)
A) hydrogen B) sodium C) potassium D) magnesium
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
12) Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of ________. 12)
A) triglycerides B) cholesterol C) glucose D) glycogen
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
13) An acid with a pH of 6 has ________ hydrogen ions than pure water. 13)
A) 100-fold fewer B) 10-fold fewer C) 100-fold more D) 10-fold more
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
14) Select the correct statement about isotopes. 14)
A) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements.
B) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons but differing numbers of
electrons.
C) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their mass number.
D) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
3
15) Select which reactions will usually be irreversible regarding chemical equilibrium in human
bodies.
15)
A) glucose molecules joined to make glycogen
B) ADP + Pi to make ATP
C) H2O + CO2 to make H2CO3
D) glucose to CO2 and H2O
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
16) ATP ADP + Pi is an example of a(n) ________ reaction. 16)
A) exchange B) reversible C) synthesis D) decomposition
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
17) What structural level is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha
helix?
17)
A) tertiary structure B) primary structure
C) quaternary structure D) secondary structure
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
18) With a family history of cardiovascular disease, which toast spread would be considered the most
heart healthy?
18)
A) lard (pig fat) B) butter containing butterfat
C) margarine containing trans fats D) olive oil
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
19) What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in triglycerides (neutral fats)? 19)
A) 1:1 B) 3:1 C) 4:1 D) 2:1
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
4
20) Choose the answer that best describes fibrous proteins. 20)
A) rarely exhibit secondary structure B) are usually called enzymes
C) are cellular catalysts D) are very stable and insoluble in water
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
21) A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________. 21)
A) the release of energy B) a synthesis
C) the consumption of energy D) forming a larger molecule
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
22) Choose the answer that best describes HCO3-. 22)
A) a weak acid B) a bicarbonate ion
C) a proton donor D) common in the liver
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
23) Which of the following is chemically inert (unreactive)? 23)
A) sodium (atomic number 11) B) neon (atomic number 10)
C) carbon (atomic number 6) D) oxygen (atomic number 8)
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
24) An atom with 3 electrons in its outermost (valence) shell may have a total of ________ electrons
altogether.
24)
A) 8 B) 17 C) 13 D) 3
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
5
25) Which of the following is incorrectly matched? 25)
A) nucleotide; nucleic acid B) amino acid; protein
C) monosaccharide; carbohydrate D) eicosanoid; triglyceride
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
26) Salivary amylase is an enzyme produced by the salivary glands that breaks down carbohydrates.
What will happen to this enzyme as it follows the food into the stomach where the pH drops to 2.5?
26)
A) The enzyme will continue to function as it remains unchanged in chemical reactions.
B) The enzyme will assume an alternate form and catalyze additional reactions.
C) The enzyme will denature and become inactive.
D) The enzyme will denature but retain its function.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
27) Which property of water is demonstrated when we sweat? 27)
A) cushioning
B) high heat capacity
C) reactivity
D) polar solvent properties
E) high heat of vaporization
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
28) When frying an egg, the protein albumin denatures and maintains only its ________ structure. 28)
A) tertiary B) primary C) quaternary D) secondary
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
29) The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels,
respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?
29)
A) 2, 8, 1 B) 2, 8 C) 2 D) 2, 8, 8
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
6
30) Which statement about enzymes is false? 30)
A) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.
B) Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form.
C) Most enzymes can catalyze millions of reactions per minute.
D) Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
31) Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________. 31)
A) removal of a water molecule between each two units
B) addition of a carbon atom between each two units
C) addition of a water molecule between each two units
D) removal of a carbon atom between each two units
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
32) The four elements that make up about 96% of body weight are ________. 32)
A) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium B) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen
C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen D) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
33) ________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal
bone growth and function.
33)
A) Cortisol B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin K D) Vitamin A
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
34) Which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction rate? 34)
A) temperature B) time
C) concentration of reactants D) particle size
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
7
35) Which of the following does not describe enzymes? 35)
A) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.
B) Each enzyme is chemically specific.
C) Some enzymes are purely protein.
D) Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
36) Starch is the stored carbohydrate in plants, while ________ is the stored carbohydrate in animals. 36)
A) glucose B) triglyceride C) cellulose D) glycogen
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
37) If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following? 37)
A) 37 electrons B) 37 protons and 37 electrons
C) 74 protons D) 37 protons and 37 neutrons
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
38) A high fever causes an enzyme to lose its three dimensional structure and function. Which bonds
are broken when a protein denatures?
38)
A) polar covalent bonds B) non-polar covalent bonds
C) hydrogen bonds D) ionic bonds
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
39) What type of chemical bond can form between an atom with 11 protons and an atom with 17
protons?
39)
A) polar covalent B) non-polar covalent
C) hydrogen D) ionic
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
8
40) What does CH4 mean? 40)
A) This is an inorganic molecule.
B) This was involved in a redox reaction.
C) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
D) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
41) What is a chain of more than 50 amino acids called? 41)
A) nucleic acid B) protein C) triglyceride D) polysaccharide
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
42) Tendons are strong, rope-like structures that connect skeletal muscle to bone. Which of the
following proteins would provide strength to a tendon?
42)
A) collagen B) actin
C) molecular chaperone D) albumin
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
43) What does the formula C6H12O6 mean? 43)
A) There are, 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.
B) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.
C) The molecular weight is 24.
D) The substance is a colloid.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
44) What happens in redox reactions? 44)
A) the electron acceptor is oxidized
B) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
C) the organic substance that loses hydrogen is usually reduced
D) the reaction is uniformly reversible
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
9
45) What is a dipole? 45)
A) an organic molecule B) a type of bond
C) a polar molecule D) a type of reaction
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
46) Which of the following does not describe uses for the ATP molecule? 46)
A) mechanical work B) transport across membranes
C) pigment structure D) chemical work
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
47) Which of the following is a neutralization reaction? 47)
A) HCl + NaOH NaCl + H2O B) HCl H+ + Cl-
C) NH3 + H+ NH4+2 D) NaOH Na+ + OHAnswer:
A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
48) Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell (outermost energy level)? 48)
A) 5 B) 10 C) 3 D) 7
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
49) When DNA is replicated, it is necessary for the two strands to unzip temporarily. Choose which
bonding type is most appropriate for holding the strands together in this way.
49)
A) hydrogen bonding B) ionic bonding
C) polar covalent bonding D) non-polar covalent bonding
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
10
50) Salts are always ________. 50)
A) ionic compounds B) single covalent compounds
C) hydrogen bonded D) double covalent compounds
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
51) Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids. 51)
A) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.
B) tDNA is considered a molecular slave of DNA during protein synthesis.
C) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C.
D) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, and tDNA.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
52) Lithium has an atomic number of 3. How many electrons are there in the outermost (valence) shell? 52)
A) two B) zero C) one D) three
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
53) You notice that you cannot read your book through a test tube of patient fluid held against the
print, making it so blurred as to be unreadable. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker,
though it has been sitting for several days in a rack. What type of liquid is this?
53)
A) suspension B) solution C) mixture D) colloid
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
54) Which of the following does not characterize proteins? 54)
A) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity.
B) Their function depends on their three-dimensional shape.
C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information.
D) They have both functional and structural roles in the body.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
11
55) Which of the following is a general function for a fibrous protein? 55)
A) transport
B) catalysis
C) structural framework
D) protein management
E) body defense
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
56) Which of the following statements is false? 56)
A) The pH of blood is slightly basic.
B) When acids and bases are mixed, they react with each other to form water and a salt.
C) The more hydrogen ions in a solution, the more acidic the solution.
D) When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also
decreases.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
57) In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils have ________. 57)
A) a high water content B) saturated fatty acids
C) unsaturated fatty acids D) long fatty acid chains
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
58) Forming glycogen as energy storage in the liver is an example of ________. 58)
A) oxidation B) catabolism C) anabolism D) exergonic
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
59) An atom with an atomic number of 10 and a mass number of 24 would have ________. 59)
A) 24 protons B) 10 neutrons C) 14 neutrons D) 14 electrons
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
12
60) Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nerve impulses? 60)
A) P B) Na C) Fe D) I
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
61) A patient is hyperventilating. The blowing off of excessive carbon dioxide causes a decrease in
blood H+ concentration. How can the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system function to correct
this imbalance?
CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-
61)
A) H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and raise pH
B) H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and lower pH
C) HCO3- binds with H+ to form H2CO3 and raise pH
D) HCO3- binds with H+ to form H2CO3 and lower pH
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
62) The chemical symbol O=O means ________. 62)
A) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit
B) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons
C) zero equals zero
D) the atoms are double bonded
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
63) Which of the following statements is false? 63)
A) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more
forcefully.
B) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions, sometimes while undergoing reversible
changes in shape.
C) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher
numbers.
D) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
13
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Figure 2.1
Using Figure 2.1, match the following:
64) Functional protein. 64)
Answer: B
Explanation:
14
Figure 2.2
Using Figure 2.2, match the following:
65) Phosphate. 65)
Answer: C
Explanation:
66) Deoxyribose sugar. 66)
Answer: B
Explanation:
15
Figure 2.1
Using Figure 2.1, match the following:
67) Polysaccharide. 67)
Answer: C
Explanation:
16
Figure 2.2
Using Figure 2.2, match the following:
68) Hydrogen bonds. 68)
Answer: A
Explanation:
17
Figure 2.1
Using Figure 2.1, match the following:
69) Nucleotide. 69)
Answer: E
Explanation:
70) Monosaccharide. 70)
Answer: A
Explanation:
18
Figure 2.2
Using Figure 2.2, match the following:
71) Thymine. 71)
Answer: D
Explanation:
19
Figure 2.1
Using Figure 2.1, match the following:
72) Lipid. 72)
Answer: D
Explanation:
73) Tertiary (protein) structure. 73)
Answer: B
Explanation:
74) Polymer. 74)
Answer: C
Explanation:
20
Figure 2.2
Using Figure 2.2, match the following:
75) Guanine. 75)
Answer: E
Explanation:
TRUE/FALSE. Write T if the statement is true and F if the statement is false.
76) Hydrogen bonds are too weak to bind atoms together to form molecules, but they do hold different
parts of a single large molecule in a specific three-dimensional shape.
76)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
77) Isotopes differ from each other only in the number of electrons the atom contains. 77)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
21
78) Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is primarily stored in skeletal muscle and liver cells. 78)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
79) It is the difference in the R group that makes each amino acid chemically unique. 79)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
80) The lower the pH, the higher the hydrogen ion concentration. 80)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
81) Triglycerides are a poor source of stored energy. 81)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
82) The pH of body fluids must remain fairly constant for the body to maintain homeostasis. 82)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
83) Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide. 83)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
84) The fact that no chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture is the chief
difference between mixtures and compounds.
84)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
85) The acidity of a solution reflects the concentration of free hydrogen ions in the solution. 85)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
86) The atomic weight is an average of the relative weights (mass numbers) of all the isotopes of an
element.
86)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
87) Covalent bonds are generally less stable than ionic bonds. 87)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
88) About 60% to 80% of the volume of most living cells consists of organic compounds. 88)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
89) A dipeptide can be broken into two amino acids by dehydration synthesis. 89)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
22
90) All organic compounds contain carbon. 90)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
91) Chemical properties are determined primarily by neutrons. 91)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
92) Omega-3 fatty acids appear to decrease the risk of heart disease. 92)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
93) A chemical bond is an energy relationship between outer electrons and neighboring atoms. 93)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
94) A charged particle is generally called an ion or electrolyte. 94)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
95) Mixtures are combinations of elements or compounds that are physically blended together but are
not bound by chemical bonds.
95)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
96) Buffers resist abrupt and large changes in the pH of body fluids by releasing or binding ions. 96)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
Match the following:
97) Dry ice (frozen carbon dioxide).
Answer: A
A) Compound 97)
Match the following:
98) Heterogeneous, will settle.
Answer: B
99) Homogeneous, will not settle.
Answer: A
A) Solutions
B) Suspensions
98)
99)
Match the following particles to the correct description:
100) Neutral subatomic particle.
Answer: A
A) Neutron 100)
23
101) Smallest particle of an element that
retains its properties.
Answer: A
A) Atom 101)
Match the following:
102) Legs moving the pedals of a bicycle.
Answer: A
A) Mechanical energy 102)
Match the following:
103) Will not scatter light.
Answer: A
A) Solutions 103)
Match the following:
104) Usually, the first one or two letters of
an elements name.
Answer: A
A) Atomic symbol 104)
Match the following particles to the correct description:
105) Electrically charged particle due to
loss of an electron.
Answer: A
A) Cation 105)
Match the following:
106) Is a function of, and varies with,
gravity.
Answer: A
107) Although a man who weighs 175
pounds on Earth would be lighter on
the moon and heavier on Jupiter, his
________ would not be different.
Answer: B
A) Weight
B) Mass
106)
107)
Match the following:
108) Water.
Answer: A
A) Compound 108)
Match the following:
109) Combined number of protons and
neutrons in an atom.
Answer: A
A) Mass number of an element 109)
24
Match the following chemical bonds to the correct description:
110) A bond in which electrons are shared
equally.
Answer: A
A) Nonpolar covalent bond 110)
Match the following particles to the correct description:
111) Combination of two or more atoms of
the same element held together by
chemical bonds.
Answer: A
A) Molecule 111)
Match the following chemical bonds to the correct description:
112) A bond in which electrons are
completely lost or gained by the atoms
involved.
Answer: A
A) Ionic bond 112)
Match the following:
113) Can be measured only by its effects on
matter.
Answer: A
A) Energy 113)
Match the following:
114) Energy that travels in waves. Part of
the electromagnetic spectrum.
Answer: A
A) Radiant energy 114)
Match the following:
115) Number of protons in an atom.
Answer: A
A) Atomic number 115)
Match the following:
116) When the bonds of ATP are broken,
energy is released to do cellular work.
Answer: A
A) Chemical energy 116)
Match the following:
117) Anything that occupies space and has
mass.
Answer: A
A) Matter 117)
25
Match the following:
118) Heterogeneous, will not settle.
Answer: A
A) Colloids 118)
Match the following:
119) Represented by the flow of charged
particles along a conductor, or the
flow of ions across a membrane.
Answer: A
A) Electrical energy 119)
Match the following:
120) Carbon.
Answer: A
121) Blood.
Answer: B
A) Element
B) Mixture
120)
121)
Match the following chemical bonds to the correct description:
122) A type of bond important in tying
different parts of the same molecule
together into a three-dimensional
structure.
Answer: A
123) A bond in which electrons are shared
unequally.
Answer: B
A) Hydrogen bond
B) Polar covalent bond
122)
123)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
124) Although his cholesterol levels were not high, Mr. Martinez read that cholesterol was bad for his health, so he
eliminated all foods and food products containing this molecule. He later found that his cholesterol level
dropped only 20%. Why did it not drop more?
Answer: Cholesterol is produced by the liver, in addition to being ingested in foods.
125) Are all chemical reactions reversible? If not, why arent they all reversible?
Answer: All chemical reactions are theoretically reversible, but only if the products are not consumed and enough
energy is available for the reaction.
126) Explain the difference between potential and kinetic energy.
Answer: Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work. Kinetic energy is energy in
action.
127) If all protons, electrons, and neutrons are alike, regardless of the atom considered, what determines the unique
properties of each element?
Answer: Atoms of different elements are composed of different numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons.
26
128) How can DNA be used to fingerprint a suspect in a crime?
Answer: The DNA of a person is unique to that individual. By obtaining the DNA from nucleated cells from the
crime scene (e.g., blood, semen, other body tissues), enzymes may be used to break up the DNA into
fragments. Because nearly everyones DNA is different, it also breaks up into fragments differently. When
the fragments are separated, they form patterns even more unique than fingerprint patterns. A match of
suspect and crime scene DNA is strong evidence.
129) What properties does water have that make it a very versatile fluid?
Answer: High heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, polar solvent properties, reactivity, and cushioning.
130) Mrs. Mulligan goes to her dentist and, after having a couple of cavities filled, her dentist strongly suggests that
she reduce her intake of sodas and increase her intake of calcium phosphates in the foods she eats. Why?
Answer: Sodas are strong acids that can reduce bone and tooth salts. Calcium phosphate makes teeth hard and
therefore more resistant to tooth decay.
131) What advantages does ATP have in being the energy currency molecule?
Answer: Its energy is easy to capture and store; it releases just the right amount of energy for the cells needs so it
is protected from excessive energy release. A universal energy currency is efficient because a single
system can be used by all the cells in the body.
132) Protons and electrons exist in every atom nucleus except hydrogen. Is this statement true or false and why?
Answer: False. Hydrogen has one proton and one electron. It is the neutron, not the electron that can coexist in the
nucleus and that hydrogen does not have.
133) Why is it possible for us to drink a solution that contains a mixture of equal concentration of a strong acid and a
strong base, either of which, separately, would be very caustic?
Answer: When an acid and base of equal strength are mixed, they undergo a displacement (neutralization)
reaction to form water and a salt.
134) How can phospholipids form a film when mixed in water?
Answer: Phospholipids have both polar and nonpolar ends. The polar end interacts with water, leaving the
nonpolar end oriented in the opposite direction.
135) A 23-year-old male was riding his road bike in 100-degree heat, when he suddenly became nauseated and
weak. He called 911 from his cell phone. When the ambulance came, the paramedics started intravenous
therapy for severe dehydration. Explain the critical role of water to maintain homeostasis.
Answer: Water is the most abundant and important inorganic compound in living material. It makes up 60% to
80% of the volume of most living cells. The properties of water are: high heat capacity, high heat of
vaporization, polar solvent properties, reactivity, and cushioning. In this case the bicyclist lost a large
amount of water through perspiration in an effort to cool his body. This caused a disruption in
homeostasis.
136) Name at least four things you know about enzymes.
Answer: 1. Most are proteins.
2. They have specific binding sites for specific substrates.
3. They lower the activation barrier for a specific reaction.
4. The names often end in ase.
5. They can be denatured.
6. They can be used again and again.
27
137) All chemical reactions are theoretically reversible. Comment on this statement.
Answer: It is possible to reverse any reaction if the products are still present. Those that are only slightly exergonic
are easily reversible. Some would require an enormous amount of energy to reverse. In the simple
reaction Na + Cl NaCl the amount of energy it takes to reverse table salt to chlorine gas and sodium
metal is enormous. When glucose is oxidized the energy goes into bonds of ATP molecules which are
then spent and thus the energy is not available to reform glucose.
138) Brenda is a 26-year-old female who is being discharged from the hospital after a vaginal delivery of an
8-pound healthy infant. Brenda is instructed by the nurse to eat a diet high in fiber and to drink 8 glasses of
water per day to prevent constipation. Explain the role of fiber and water to promote defecation.
Answer: Cellulose is a polysaccharide found in all plant products that adds bulk to the diet to promote feces
through the colon. Water acts as a lubricating liquid within the colon, which eases feces through the
bowel.
139) In the compound H2CO3, what do the numbers 2 and 3 represent?
Answer: The 2 indicates that there are two hydrogen atoms in the compound and the 3 indicates that there are
three oxygen atoms in the compound.
140) A chemical bond never occurs between components of a mixture. Discuss this.
Answer: Mixtures come in three forms solutions, colloids, and suspensions. Components of these mixtures
always retain their original makeup and can be separated into their individual components; therefore no
chemical bonding has taken place.
141) An amino acid may act as a proton acceptor or donor. Explain.
Answer: Amino acids have two components a base group (proton acceptor) and an organic acid part (a proton
donor). Some have additional base or acid groups on the ends of their R groups as well.
142) When a set of electrodes connected to a light bulb is placed in a solution of dextrose and a current is applied, the
light bulb does not light up. When the same unit is placed in HCl, it does. Why?
Answer: HCl ionizes to form current-conducting electrolytes. Dextrose does not ionize, and therefore does not
conduct current.
143) Describe the factors that affect chemical reaction rates.
Answer: Temperature increases kinetic energy and therefore the force of molecular collisions. Particle size: smaller
particles move faster at the same temperature and therefore collide more frequently; also, smaller
particles have more surface area given the same concentration of reactants. Concentration: the higher the
concentration, the greater the chance of particles colliding. Catalysts increase the rate of the reaction at a
given temperature. Enzymes are biological catalysts.
144) A 65-year-old patient came to the emergency room with complaints of severe heartburn unrelieved by taking a
large handful of antacids. Would you expect the pH to be high or low? Explain why.
Answer: You would expect a high pH. Taking antacids will neutralize the acidic stomach. Taking a handful of
antacids can cause an alkaloid state. Certain drugs, such as corticosteroids and antacids that contain
baking soda, will lead to metabolic alkalosis.
145) What is the major difference between polar and nonpolar covalent bonds?
Answer: Polar bonds have an unequal sharing of electrons resulting in a slight negative charge at one end of the
molecule and a slight positive charge at the other end. Nonpolar bonds have an equal sharing of
electrons, resulting in a balanced charge among the atoms.
28
146) What happens when globular proteins are denatured?
Answer: The active sites are destroyed.
147) Explain why chemical reactions in the body are often irreversible.
Answer: Chemical reactions that release energy cannot be reversed unless energy is put back into the system. Also,
some reactions produce molecules in excessive quantities (like CO2 and NH4) that the body then
eliminates, but which are needed to reverse a reaction.
29
Answer Key
Testname: C2
1) D
2) B
3) A
4) C
5) D
6) C
7) C
8) C
9) A
10) A
11) B
12) D
13) D
14) C
15) D
16) D
17) D
18) D
19) B
20) D
21) A
22) B
23) B
24) C
25) D
26) C
27) E
28) B
29) A
30) B
31) A
32) C
33) B
34) B
35) A
36) D
37) C
38) C
39) D
40) C
41) B
42) A
43) A
44) B
45) C
46) C
47) A
48) D
49) A
50) A
30
Answer Key
Testname: C2
51) A
52) C
53) D
54) C
55) C
56) D
57) C
58) C
59) C
60) B
61) B
62) D
63) A
64) B
65) C
66) B
67) C
68) A
69) E
70) A
71) D
72) D
73) B
74) C
75) E
76) TRUE
77) FALSE
78) TRUE
79) TRUE
80) TRUE
81) FALSE
82) TRUE
83) TRUE
84) TRUE
85) TRUE
86) TRUE
87) FALSE
88) FALSE
89) FALSE
90) TRUE
91) FALSE
92) TRUE
93) TRUE
94) TRUE
95) TRUE
96) TRUE
97) A
98) B
99) A
100) A
31
Answer Key
Testname: C2
101) A
102) A
103) A
104) A
105) A
106) A
107) B
108) A
109) A
110) A
111) A
112) A
113) A
114) A
115) A
116) A
117) A
118) A
119) A
120) A
121) B
122) A
123) B
124) Cholesterol is produced by the liver, in addition to being ingested in foods.
125) All chemical reactions are theoretically reversible, but only if the products are not consumed and enough energy is
available for the reaction.
126) Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work. Kinetic energy is energy in action.
127) Atoms of different elements are composed of different numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons.
128) The DNA of a person is unique to that individual. By obtaining the DNA from nucleated cells from the crime scene
(e.g., blood, semen, other body tissues), enzymes may be used to break up the DNA into fragments. Because nearly
everyones DNA is different, it also breaks up into fragments differently. When the fragments are separated, they form
patterns even more unique than fingerprint patterns. A match of suspect and crime scene DNA is strong evidence.
129) High heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, polar solvent properties, reactivity, and cushioning.
130) Sodas are strong acids that can reduce bone and tooth salts. Calcium phosphate makes teeth hard and therefore more
resistant to tooth decay.
131) Its energy is easy to capture and store; it releases just the right amount of energy for the cells needs so it is protected
from excessive energy release. A universal energy currency is efficient because a single system can be used by all the
cells in the body.
132) False. Hydrogen has one proton and one electron. It is the neutron, not the electron that can coexist in the nucleus and
that hydrogen does not have.
133) When an acid and base of equal strength are mixed, they undergo a displacement (neutralization) reaction to form
water and a salt.
134) Phospholipids have both polar and nonpolar ends. The polar end interacts with water, leaving the nonpolar end
oriented in the opposite direction.
135) Water is the most abundant and important inorganic compound in living material. It makes up 60% to 80% of the
volume of most living cells. The properties of water are: high heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, polar solvent
properties, reactivity, and cushioning. In this case the bicyclist lost a large amount of water through perspiration in an
effort to cool his body. This caused a disruption in homeostasis.
32
Answer Key
Testname: C2
136) 1. Most are proteins.
2. They have specific binding sites for specific substrates.
3. They lower the activation barrier for a specific reaction.
4. The names often end in ase.
5. They can be denatured.
6. They can be used again and again.
137) It is possible to reverse any reaction if the products are still present. Those that are only slightly exergonic are easily
reversible. Some would require an enormous amount of energy to reverse. In the simple reaction Na + Cl NaCl the
amount of energy it takes to reverse table salt to chlorine gas and sodium metal is enormous. When glucose is oxidized
the energy goes into bonds of ATP molecules which are then spent and thus the energy is not available to reform
glucose.
138) Cellulose is a polysaccharide found in all plant products that adds bulk to the diet to promote feces through the colon.
Water acts as a lubricating liquid within the colon, which eases feces through the bowel.
139) The 2 indicates that there are two hydrogen atoms in the compound and the 3 indicates that there are three oxygen
atoms in the compound.
140) Mixtures come in three forms solutions, colloids, and suspensions. Components of these mixtures always retain their
original makeup and can be separated into their individual components; therefore no chemical bonding has taken
place.
141) Amino acids have two components a base group (proton acceptor) and an organic acid part (a proton donor). Some
have additional base or acid groups on the ends of their R groups as well.
142) HCl ionizes to form current-conducting electrolytes. Dextrose does not ionize, and therefore does not conduct current.
143) Temperature increases kinetic energy and therefore the force of molecular collisions. Particle size: smaller particles
move faster at the same temperature and therefore collide more frequently; also, smaller particles have more surface
area given the same concentration of reactants. Concentration: the higher the concentration, the greater the chance of
particles colliding. Catalysts increase the rate of the reaction at a given temperature. Enzymes are biological catalysts.
144) You would expect a high pH. Taking antacids will neutralize the acidic stomach. Taking a handful of antacids can
cause an alkaloid state. Certain drugs, such as corticosteroids and antacids that contain baking soda, will lead to
metabolic alkalosis.
145) Polar bonds have an unequal sharing of electrons resulting in a slight negative charge at one end of the molecule and a
slight positive charge at the other end. Nonpolar bonds have an equal sharing of electrons, resulting in a balanced
charge among the atoms.
146) The active sites are destroyed.
147) Chemical reactions that release energy cannot be reversed unless energy is put back into the system. Also, some
reactions produce molecules in excessive quantities (like CO2 and NH4) that the body then eliminates, but which are
needed to reverse a reaction.
33

 

CHAPTER 4

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following is not a step in tissue repair? 1)
A) formation of new stem cells B) regeneration and fibrosis
C) inflammation D) restoration of blood supply
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
2) Groups of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related function form a(n)
________.
2)
A) organism B) organ C) organ system D) tissue
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
3) What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? 3)
A) areolar tissue B) bone (osseous tissue)
C) cartilage tissue D) fibrocartilaginous tissue
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
4) The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to
absorb shock, is because they possess ________.
4)
A) hydroxyapatite crystals B) elastic fibers
C) reticular fibers D) collagen fibers
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
1
5) Which statement best describes connective tissue? 5)
A) usually contains a large amount of matrix
B) primarily concerned with secretion
C) usually lines a body cavity
D) typically arranged in a single layer of cells
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
6) Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair. 6)
A) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.
B) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection.
C) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot.
D) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
7) Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue. 7)
A) Its primary function is nutrient storage.
B) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic.
C) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.
D) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
8) Cell type not found in areolar connective tissue. 8)
A) fibroblast B) mast cell C) macrophage D) chondrocyte
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
9) Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in
the lungs?
9)
A) pseudostratified columnar B) simple squamous
C) simple cuboidal D) simple columnar
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
2
10) Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelia? 10)
A) multiple nuclei B) microvilli
C) lysosomes D) Golgi apparatus
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
11) Which of the following is a modification of the simple columnar epithelium that allows for efficient
absorption along portions of the digestive tract?
11)
A) fibroblasts B) cilia
C) thin and permeable D) dense microvilli
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
12) Chondroblasts ________. 12)
A) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix
B) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae
C) remain in compact bone even after the epiphyseal plate closes
D) never lose their ability to divide
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
13) Choose which tissue type likely functions to add support to an organ. 13)
A) hyaline cartilage B) transitional
C) stratified squamous epithelium D) cardiac muscle
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
14) Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which
epithelial tissue?
14)
A) stratified squamous B) transitional
C) simple columnar D) simple squamous
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
3
15) Which tissue in the wall of the uterus is required for labor contractions? 15)
A) skeletal muscle B) elastic cartilage
C) smooth muscle D) stratified squamous
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
16) Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? 16)
A) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength.
B) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures.
C) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers.
D) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
17) Your instructor gives you an unknown organ for you to examine and identify through microscopy.
What should you do first with the sample?
17)
A) examine it for artifacts B) cut it into sections
C) stain it to enhance contrast D) fix it with preservative
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
18) A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified
as ________.
18)
A) stratified squamous B) transitional
C) simple squamous D) simple cuboidal
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
19) Which is true concerning muscle tissue? 19)
A) cuboidal shape enhances function
B) contains contractile units made of collagen
C) highly cellular and well vascularized
D) is a single-celled tissue
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
4
20) The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________. 20)
A) muscle B) reticular C) collagen D) elastic
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
21) Which cells are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells? 21)
A) mast cells B) macrophages C) fibroblasts D) goblet cells
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
22) Which tissue type is formed by many cells joining together, each contributing nuclei? 22)
A) skeletal muscle B) dense regular C) cardiac muscle D) smooth muscle
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
23) Choose which tissue would line the uterine (fallopian) tubes and function as a conveyer belt to
help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus.
23)
A) stratified squamous epithelium B) ciliated simple columnar epithelium
C) simple cuboidal epithelium D) smooth muscle
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
24) Select the correct statement regarding epithelia. 24)
A) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.
B) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.
C) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another.
D) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
5
25) ________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with
the basement membrane.
25)
A) Stratified columnar B) Stratified cuboidal
C) Transitional D) Pseudostratified columnar
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
26) How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic cartilage or fibrocartilage? 26)
A) Fibers are not normally visible. B) It allows great flexibility.
C) It contains more nuclei. D) It is more vascularized.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
27) The primary blast cell for connective tissue proper is the ________. 27)
A) chondroblast B) osteoblast C) hemocytoblast D) fibroblast
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
28) Which tissue type would likely function to hold the kidneys in place? 28)
A) smooth muscle B) adipose C) reticular D) dense regular
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
29) Connective tissue extracellular matrix is composed of ________. 29)
A) all organic compounds B) cells and fibers
C) fibers and ground substance D) ground substance and cells
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
6
30) What are the three main components of connective tissue? 30)
A) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts
B) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells
C) ground substance, fibers, and cells
D) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
31) Edema (swelling) occurs when ________. 31)
A) reticular connective tissue invades the area
B) areolar tissue soaks up excess fluid in an inflamed area
C) collagen fibers enlarge as they change from dehydrated to hydrated shape
D) adipose cells enlarge by pinocytosis
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
32) Skin, lung, and blood vessel walls have which tissue characteristic in common? 32)
A) simple columnar epithelium B) simple squamous epithelium
C) reticular fibers D) elastic fibers
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
33) A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells
________.
33)
A) lines most of the respiratory tract B) is more durable than all other epithelia
C) aids in digestion D) is found in some of the larger glands
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
34) Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through
ducts are classified as ________.
34)
A) ceruminous B) exocrine C) endocrine D) sebaceous
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
7
35) Which of the following is true about epithelia? 35)
A) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs.
B) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion.
C) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized.
D) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
36) Which of the following is not found in cartilage but is found in bone? 36)
A) organic fibers B) living cells C) lacunae D) blood vessels
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
37) Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands? 37)
A) These glands are ductless.
B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion.
C) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves.
D) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
38) The first step in tissue repair involves ________. 38)
A) formation of scar tissue
B) inflammation
C) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells
D) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
39) Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue. 39)
A) dense regular B) reticular C) areolar D) embryonic
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
8
40) The salivary glands are a good example of a ________ exocrine gland. 40)
A) simple branched alveolar B) compound alveolar
C) compound tubuloalveolar D) compound tubular
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
41) Select the correct statement regarding the stem cells of connective tissue. 41)
A) Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper.
B) Connective tissue does not contain cells.
C) Blast cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells.
D) Connective tissue cells are nondividing.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
42) Generally speaking, connective tissues are largely non-living extracellular matrix. Which of the
following is an exception?
42)
A) adipose B) areolar C) bone D) blood
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
43) Arteries, veins, and lymphatics keep clots from sticking as long as their ________ is intact and
healthy.
43)
A) mesothelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) endothelium D) transitional epithelium
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
44) The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________. 44)
A) fibrocartilage B) hyaline cartilage
C) elastic cartilage D) adipose tissue
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
9
45) Heart muscle cells would tend to separate without ________. 45)
A) stroma B) intercalated discs
C) myofilaments D) flana
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
46) A substance received or given off by your body will likely pass through which tissue type? 46)
A) nervous tissue B) muscle tissue
C) connective tissue D) epithelial tissue
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
10
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Figure 4.2
Using Figure 4.2, match the following:
47) Cardiac muscle. 47)
Answer: C
Explanation:
48) Stratified squamous epithelium. 48)
Answer: D
Explanation:
11
Figure 4.1
Using Figure 4.1, match the following:
49) Composed of cells in a fluid matrix. 49)
Answer: E
Explanation:
12
Figure 4.2
Using Figure 4.2, match the following:
50) Skeletal muscle. 50)
Answer: E
Explanation:
51) Simple squamous epithelium. 51)
Answer: A
Explanation:
13
Figure 4.1
Using Figure 4.1, match the following:
52) Provides tensile strength with the ability to absorb compressive shock. 52)
Answer: C
Explanation:
53) Forms tendons and ligaments. 53)
Answer: B
Explanation:
54) Supports and protects; stores calcium. 54)
Answer: D
Explanation:
14
Figure 4.2
Using Figure 4.2, match the following:
55) Simple cuboidal epithelium. 55)
Answer: B
Explanation:
15
Figure 4.1
Using Figure 4.1, match the following:
56) Supports and protects; insulates against heat loss; reserve source of fuel. 56)
Answer: A
Explanation:
TRUE/FALSE. Write T if the statement is true and F if the statement is false.
57) A major characteristic of fibrocartilage is its unique amount of flexibility and elasticity. 57)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
58) Elastic cartilage tissue is found in the walls of the large arteries that leave the heart. 58)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
59) Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers. 59)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
60) Blood is considered a type of connective tissue. 60)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
16
61) Goblet cells are found within pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. 61)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
62) A smooth muscle cell has a central nucleus but lacks striations. 62)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
63) The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage. 63)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
64) Fibrocartilage is also known as gristle. 64)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
65) Depending on the functional state of the bladder, transitional epithelium may resemble stratified
squamous or stratified cuboidal epithelium.
65)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
66) Connective tissues that possess a large quantity of collagen fibers often provide the framework for
organs such as the spleen and lymph nodes.
66)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
67) Healing of a surgical incision through the body wall will tend to increase the amount of areolar
tissue.
67)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
68) Cartilage tissue tends to heal less rapidly than bone tissue. 68)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
69) Squamous cells are flattened and scale-like when mature. 69)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
70) The role of brown fat is to warm the body; whereas, the role of white fat is to store nutrients. 70)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
71) Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface. 71)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
72) Functions of connective tissues include binding, support, insulation, and protection. 72)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
17
73) Endocrine glands are often called ducted glands. 73)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
74) The basic difference between dense irregular and dense regular connective tissues is in the amount
of elastic fibers and adipose cells present.
74)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
75) Intercalated discs and striations are both characteristic of skeletal muscle. 75)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
76) Merocrine glands produce their secretions by accumulating their secretions internally until the cell
ruptures.
76)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
77) Macrophages are found in areolar and lymphatic tissues. 77)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
78) Cartilage has good regenerative capacity, while most epithelial tissues do not. 78)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
79) Simple cuboidal epithelia are usually found in areas where secretion and absorption occur. 79)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
80) Salivary glands exhibit simple tubuloalveolar glandular arrangement. 80)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
81) Tendons and ligaments are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue. 81)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
Match the following:
82) Derived from mesenchyme.
Answer: A
A) Tendon 82)
18
Match the regeneration capacity of the following tissues:
83) Cardiac muscle.
Answer: C
84) Smooth muscle.
Answer: B
85) Skeletal muscle.
Answer: A
A) Weak regenerative ability
B) Moderate regenerative ability
C) Virtually no functional regenerative ability
83)
84)
85)
Match the following:
86) Moves food through the GI tract.
Answer: A
A) Smooth muscle 86)
Match the following:
87) The epithelial membrane that lines
body cavities open to the exterior
membrane.
Answer: A
A) Mucous 87)
Match the following:
88) Has a surface to which nothing is
attached.
Answer: A
A) Skin epidermis 88)
Match the following:
89) The epithelial membrane that lines the
closed ventral cavities of the body.
Answer: A
90) Lines blood vessels and the heart.
Answer: B
A) Serous membrane
B) Endothelium membrane
89)
90)
Match the following:
91) Moves blood through the body.
Answer: A
A) Cardiac muscle 91)
Match the following:
92) Found lining the digestive and
respiratory tracts.
Answer: A
A) Mucous 92)
19
Match the regeneration capacity of the following tissues:
93) Tendons and ligaments.
Answer: A
A) Moderate regenerative ability 93)
Match the following:
94) Consists of keratinized stratified
squamous epithelium.
Answer: B
95) Makes up the pleura and pericardium.
Answer: A
A) Serous membrane
B) Cutaneous
94)
95)
Match the regeneration capacity of the following tissues:
96) Areolar connective tissue.
Answer: A
A) Regenerates extremely well 96)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
97) In terms of structure and function, compare the type of epithelium lining the trachea, air sacs of the lungs, and
the epidermis of the skin.
Answer: The trachea is lined with ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells. The mucus
produced by the goblet cells traps dust, bacteria, and other debris and the cilia move it upwards away
from the lungs. The air sacs of the lungs are lined with simple squamous epithelium that serves as a thin,
efficient membrane for gas exchange between air and blood. The epidermis of the skin consists of
stratified squamous epithelium which functions as physical protection against abrasion, bacteria, and
drying out.
98) What type of membrane lines closed ventral body cavities? List three examples.
Answer: Serous membranes line closed ventral body cavities. Three examples are pericardium, pleurae, and
peritoneum.
99) All of the following statements refer to events of tissue repair. Put the events in proper numbered order
according to the sequence of occurrence. The initial event, the injury, is already indicated as number one.
1. The skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and bleeding begins.
2. Epithelial regeneration is nearly complete.
3. Granulation tissue is formed.
4. Blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow.
5. The wound retracts.
6. Macrophages engulf and clean away cellular debris.
7. Fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break.
Answer: 1, 4, 3, 7, 6, 5, 2
20
100) Tendon tears or breaks are difficult to repair both physiologically and surgically. Why?
Answer: Tendons are composed of dense regular connective tissue, which consists of densely packed, parallel
connective tissue fibers. This type of tissue has relatively few cells and vascular supply is poor;
consequently, repair is slow. Because of the structure of the tissue, surgical repair can be compared to
attempting to suture two bristle brushes together. The broken ends of existing collage fibers will not
reunite and can still slip past each other. Furthermore, any scar that forms has an irregular pattern with
less one-way strength than parallel fibers.
101) Macrophage-like cells are found in many different tissues, and may have specific names that reflect their
location or specializations. What is the one functional characteristic common to all macrophage-like cells?
Answer: phagocytosis
102) A 6-year-old child fell off his bike and scraped his knee. Describe the first stage of wound healing.
Answer: The first stage is the inflammatory stage, characterized by injured cells releasing inflammatory chemicals,
which causes increased permeability and allows white blood cells and clotting proteins to seep into the
injured area. This protects the body from bacteria and loss of blood.
103) Explain what is meant by epithelial tissue being avascular but innervated.
Answer: Epithelial tissue contains no blood vessels but is supplied by nerve fibers.
104) John, a 72-year-old grandfather, had been smoking heavily for 24 years and had a persistent cough. A biopsy of
his lung tissue revealed considerable amounts of carbon particles. How could this happen considering the
natural cleaning mechanism of the respiratory system?
Answer: The sweeping action of the ciliated epithelium is essential in order to propel inhaled dust and other
debris out of the respiratory tract. Anything that inhibits this mechanism would allow foreign substances
to remain in the tract, which may cause damage. Chemicals such as nicotine may inhibit the action of the
cilia, allowing carbon particles found in smoke to reach the lungs.
105) Aunt Jessie woke up one morning with excruciating pain in her chest. She had trouble breathing for several
weeks. Following a visit to the doctor, she was told she had pleurisy. What is this condition and what did it
affect?
Answer: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura, the serosal membranes covering the lungs and lining the
thoracic wall. Pain is caused by the irritation and friction as the lungs rub against the walls of the cavity.
106) Explain why an open wound would need a

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