Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th Edition By Barbara H. Estridge Test Bank

Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th Edition By Barbara H. Estridge Test Bank

Description

WITH ANSWERS

Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th Edition By Barbara H. Estridge Test Bank

Lesson 1-2: The Clinical Laboratory Professional

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

1. Laboratory testing has become increasingly sophisticated.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

2. The term clinical laboratory science largely replaced medical technology for several years.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

3. The field of medical technology began 50 years ago.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

4. Early laboratories were staffed mostly by doctors.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

5. Clinical laboratory personnel work as medical detectives.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

6. As long as health care workers are competent, their manner of dress at work does not matter.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1. The professional society and credentialing agency for medical assistants is the:

a.	American Medical Technologists (AMT)
b.	American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science (ASCLS)
c.	American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA)
d.	American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP)

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

2. One agency that accredits educational programs for clinical laboratory personnel is the:

a.	North Central Association (NCA)
b.	American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science (ASCLS)
c.	National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)
d.	American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP)

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

3. One professional society and credentialing agency for phlebotomists is the:

a.	American Society of Phlebotomy Technicians (ASPT)
b.	American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science (ASCLS)
c.	American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP)
d.	North Central Association

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

4. All of the following are current trends in health care EXCEPT:

a.	emphasis on wellness	c.	geriatric medicine
b.	longer hospital stays	d.	home health care

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

5. Medical assistants have been trained in:

a.	administrative skills	c.	laboratory skills
b.	nursing skills	d.	all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

1. The Privacy Rule that describes the patients rights to privacy developed from ____________________.

 

ANS:

HIPAA

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

 

PTS:   1

 

2. The health profession concerned with performing laboratory analyses is ____________________.

 

ANS:

clinical laboratory science

medical technology

 

PTS:   1

 

3. A 1996 act of Congress that includes a guarantee of protection of privacy of an individuals health information is ____________________.

 

ANS:

HIPAA

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

 

PTS:   1

 

4. The ASPT is a professional and credentialing agency for ____________________.

 

ANS:  phlebotomists

 

PTS:   1

 

5. The AAMA is a professional society and credentialing agency for ____________________.

 

ANS:  medical assistants

 

PTS:   1

 

6. Risk of patient information being improperly accessed has increased due to the use of ____________________ for storing patient records.

 

ANS:

computers

electronic medical records

EMRs

 

PTS:   1

 

7. Educational programs for laboratory personnel consist of an academic component and a ____________________ component.

 

ANS:

clinical

practical

 

PTS:   1

 

8. Personnel qualifications for clinical laboratory workers are defined by ____________________ and are based on the job functions of the position.

 

ANS:

CLIA 88

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988

 

PTS:   1

 

9. To become a certified laboratory professional, one must complete an approved course of study and successfully complete a national ____________________.

 

ANS:

examination

exam

test

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an example only once.

a.	medical technology
b.	new trends in the health care fields
c.	micro- and nano-technology
d.	laboratory instruments
e.	AAMA
f.	clinical laboratory science
g.	CAAHEP, accrediting agency for educational programs for clinical laboratory personnel
h.	ethics
i.	clinical laboratory personnel
j.	MLT or CLT

 

 

1. commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs

 

2. accrediting agency and professional society for medical assistants

 

3. 2 years of specific training and successful completion of the national certifying exam

 

4. the profession concerned with performing laboratory analyses

 

5. medical detectives

 

6. system of conduct or behavior

 

7. the field of medical laboratory technology

 

8. micro- and nano-technology components

 

9. geriatric medicine and home health care

 

10. technology that allows rapid testing and portable testing

 

1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

2. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

3. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

4. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

5. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

6. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

7. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

8. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

9. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

10. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

Lesson 2-2: Hemoglobin

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1. The hemoglobin molecule:

a.	is made up of eight globin chains	c.	contains four heme groups
b.	contains protein and heme	d.	all of the above

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

2. Which is true concerning hemoglobin(s)?

a.	They cannot be measured on small handheld analyzers.
b.	They are named according to the type of globin chain.
c.	Thalassemias are caused by abnormalities in the heme portion.
d.	Hb A1c is the major hemoglobin in infants.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

3. Which is true of hemoglobin analysis?

a.	It is an indirect measure of oxygen-carrying capacity.
b.	It measures the red cell volume.
c.	It is always determined from an anticoagulated venous blood sample.
d.	No stable standard is available.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

4. All of the following are true of hemoglobin EXCEPT:

a.	Hemoglobin is usually included in the CBC.
b.	The reference value for females is higher than for males.
c.	Hemoglobin transports CO2 from the tissue to the lungs.
d.	The reference value for newborns is higher than for adult males.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

5. Which of the following is true for hemoglobin analysis?

a.	The specific gravity method estimates Hgb level.
b.	The reference range for adult females is 1217 g/dL.
c.	The Hgb level is unaffected by RBC count.
d.	It does not require use of Standard Precautions.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

1. The protein portion of the hemoglobin molecule is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

globin

globin chains

 

PTS:   1

 

2. Hemoglobin is the main constituent of ____________________.

 

ANS:

red blood cells

erythrocytes

RBCs

 

PTS:   1

 

3. The molecule that gives the characteristic red color to blood is ____________________.

 

ANS:

hemoglobin

Hb

Hgb

 

PTS:   1

 

4. The iron-containing portion of the hemoglobin molecule is ____________________.

 

ANS:  heme

 

PTS:   1

 

5. A blood-diluting reagent that contains iron, potassium, cyanide, and sodium bicarbonate is called ____________________.

 

ANS:

Drabkins reagent

Drabkins

 

PTS:   1

 

6. Blood hemoglobin analysis using Drabkins reagent measures the end product ____________________.

 

ANS:

cyanmethemoglobin

hemiglobincyanide

 

PTS:   1

 

7. The major functional component of RBCs that serves as the oxygen-carrying molecule is ____________________.

 

ANS:

hemoglobin

Hb

Hgb

 

PTS:   1

 

8. Cyanmethemoglobin is the stable colored compound formed when hemoglobin is reacted with ____________________.

 

ANS:

Drabkins reagent

Drabkins

 

PTS:   1

 

9. The factor for converting hemoglobin from g/dL to SI units is ____________________.

 

ANS:

ten

10

 

PTS:   1

 

10. The form of hemoglobin that is called adult hemoglobin is Hb ____________________.

 

ANS:

A_1c

A

A1c

A₁

A1

 

PTS:   1

 

11. Hemoglobin transports ____________________ from the tissues to the lungs.

 

ANS:

carbon dioxide

CO2

CO₂

 

PTS:   1

 

12. The mineral required for hemoglobin synthesis is ____________________.

 

ANS:

iron

Fe

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a.	decreased oxygen	f.	variant forms of hemoglobin
b.	thalassemias	g.	blood hemoglobin level
c.	homozygous	h.	carrier
d.	CLIA waived	i.	Hgb E
e.	Hgb F	j.	Hb A1c

 

 

1. makes up 95%98% of adult hemoglobin

 

2. produced during gestation

 

3. mutations in genes that code for globin proteins

 

4. estimation of oxygen-carrying capacity

 

5. sickle shape

 

6. anemia and microcytosis in some people from Southeast Asia

 

7. inherited hemoglobin disorders with decreased production of normal Hgbs

 

8. heterozygous for a hemoglobin gene

 

9. always pass an affected gene to offspring

 

10. many hemoglobin meters or analyzers

 

1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

2. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

3. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

4. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

5. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

6. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

7. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

8. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

9. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

10. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

Lesson 3-2: Disorders of Hemostasis

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

1. Even when the platelet count is in the normal reference range, a bleeding problem can still exist.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

2. Tests that are often performed to test hemostatic function include PT, APTT, bleeding time, and platelet count.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

3. The defect in von Willebrands disease is an acquired disorder of platelets.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

4. The vitamin-K-dependent coagulation factors are II, VII, IX, and X.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

5. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an inherited platelet disorder.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1. Which of the following is true of acquired and inherited disorders of hemostasis?

a.	They can cause either abnormal bleeding or abnormal thrombus formation.
b.	Drugs or treatments can accelerate clot formation.
c.	They require laboratory testing.
d.	all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

2. All of the following statements are true of the hemophilias EXCEPT:

a.	They are inherited as sex-linked genes on the X chromosome.
b.	Females with the recessive hemophilia gene on one chromosome are carriers.
c.	Since males inherit one X and one Y, if the Y chromosome carries the recessive hemophilia gene, the disease is expressed.
d.	Hemophilia B is also called Christmas disease.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

3. Which of the following is true of hemophilia A?

a.	It is caused by functional deficiency of coagulation factor VIII, the VIII:C protein.
b.	It is a functional deficiency of coagulation factor IX.
c.	The symptoms usually appear in early infancy.
d.	It is a functional deficiency in factors VIII and IX.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

4. All of the following are acquired coagulation factor disorders EXCEPT:

a.	von Willebrands disease	c.	DIC
b.	anticoagulant therapy	d.	vitamin K deficiency

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

5. When the bleeding time is prolonged, which more definitive tests must be performed?

a.	platelet adhesion	d.	only (a) and (b)
b.	platelet aggregation	e.	all of the above (ac)
c.	prothrombin time

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

6. Which of the following is true of hemophilia B?

a.	It is caused by a functional deficiency of factor VIII.
b.	It is due to a vitamin K deficiency.
c.	It is caused by a functional deficiency of factor IX.
d.	Symptoms are not present until adulthood.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

7. Which of the following is true of inherited platelet disorders?

a.	In Bernard-Soulier syndrome, the platelets are smaller than normal.
b.	Von Willebrands disease affects the adhesion of platelets.
c.	Von Willebrands patients are affected by petechiae.
d.	In Glanzmanns thrombasthenia, the platelets aggregate normally.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

8. All of the following are true regarding quality assessment in the performance of hemostasis tests EXCEPT:

a.	Venipuncture must be performed with minimal trauma.
b.	Correct anticoagulant must be used.
c.	Tissue fluid released during a difficult venipuncture usually has no effect on the hemostasis test results.
d.	Proper anticoagulant-to-blood ratio is critical to test results.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

9. The bleeding time is:

a.	a test for quantitative and qualitative abnormalities of platelets
b.	a screening test for factor deficiencies
c.	prolonged in hemophilia A
d.	prolonged in anticoagulant therapy

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

10. Which of the following is true of hemostasis testing?

a.	The bleeding time can be used to screen for factor deficiencies.
b.	The bleeding time is a screening test for vascular integrity.
c.	The prothrombin time test is rarely performed.
d.	If the platelet count is normal, the bleeding time will be normal.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a.	acquired platelet disorder	f.	males
b.	inherited platelet disorder	g.	females
c.	factor VIII deficiency	h.	factor IX deficiency
d.	acquired factor disorder	i.	DIC
e.	petechiae

 

 

1. hemophilia A

 

2. severe vitamin K deficiency

 

3. hemophilia B

 

4. ITP

 

5. one X chromosome

 

6. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

 

7. two X chromosomes

 

8. widespread thrombotic and secondary fibrinolytic reaction

 

9. small, purplish hemorrhagic spots on the skin

 

1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

2. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

3. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

4. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

5. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

6. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

7. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

8. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

9. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

Lesson 4-2: Infectious Mononucleosis Tests

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

1. Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by an increase in monocytes.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

2. Infectious mononucleosis symptoms can mimic several other infections.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

3. The immunological test for infectious mononucleosis is positive within 3 days after infection and remains positive for 2 weeks.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

4. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by infection with Epstein-Barr virus.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

5. The rapid test for infectious mononucleosis is designed to detect antibodies to the Epstein-Barr virus.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

6. Lymphadenopathy is a malignant condition of lymph nodes.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

7. During the acute phase of infectious mononucleosis, hepatosplenomegaly can be present.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

8. Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis are similar to those of chronic fatigue syndrome.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

9. None of the rapid tests for infectious mononucleosis are CLIA waived.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

10. When performing infectious mononucleosis rapid tests that use cartridges or self-contained reaction units, it is not necessary to wear gloves.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1. All of the following are considered when making a diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis EXCEPT:

a.	changes in circulating RBCs	c.	changes in circulating WBCs
b.	immunological findings	d.	clinical symptoms

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

2. In cases of infectious mononucleosis, you would expect:

a.	increased numbers of neutrophils	c.	increased percentage of lymphocytes
b.	increased percentage of monocytes	d.	none of the above

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

3. Which is NOT correct concerning heterophile antibodies?

a.	They are present in infectious mononucleosis.
b.	Their detection is the basis of most tests for IM.
c.	They are IgM.
d.	They are species and antigen specific.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

4. Which of the following are clinical symptoms that can be present in infectious mononucleosis?

a.	fever and headache	d.	fatigue
b.	sore throat	e.	all of the above
c.	enlarged spleen

 

 

ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

5. Rapid test kits for IM can be designed to have which of the following endpoints?

a.	agglutination or color formation	c.	hemolysis or clot formation
b.	color formation or hemolysis	d.	color formation or clot formation

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Epstein-Barr viral infections?

a.	It occurs only in the 15-to-25-year-old age group.
b.	It has no known effect on pregnancy.
c.	95% of the U.S. population has been infected by the age of 40.
d.	Latent infections can reactivate.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

1. The cell type infected by the Epstein-Barr virus in infectious mononucleosis is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

B cell

B lymphocyte

B cells

B lymphocytes

 

PTS:   1

 

2. The rapid test for infectious mononucleosis is designed to detect the presence of ____________________.

 

ANS:  heterophile antibodies

 

PTS:   1

 

3. Heterophile antibodies are of the ____________________ class.

 

ANS:

IgM

immunoglobulin M

 

PTS:   1

 

4. The blood cell that is seen in infectious mononucleosis is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

atypical lymph

atypical lymphocyte

reactive lymph

reactive lymphocyte

 

PTS:   1

 

5. The time between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of symptoms is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

incubation period

incubation time

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a.	color reaction	f.	sore throat
b.	agglutination	g.	atypical lymphocyte
c.	IgM	h.	external control
d.	reactive monocyte	i.	atypical hepatocyte
e.	IgG	j.	internal control

 

 

1. hematological finding in IM

 

2. heterophile antibodies

 

3. immunochromatographic assay

 

4. clinical finding in IM

 

5. commercial assayed serum

 

1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

2. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

3. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

4. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

5. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

Lesson 5-2: Urine Specimen Collection and Processing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

1. Nocturia is the absence of urine production.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

2. Polyuria is the excessive production of urine.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

3. A common type of urine specimen submitted for laboratory analysis is the random urine.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

4. For clean-catch specimens the urine container must be sterile.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

5. Quantitative urine tests require a 24-hour urine specimen.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

6. A urine specimen must be labeled on the lid, not on the container.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

7. A random urine specimen is required when the specimen is to be cultured for microorganisms.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

8. An ammonialike odor in urine is usually caused by bacteria.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

9. It is routine urinalysis policy to store urine specimens in the dark at 4C6C for 24 hours to avoid deterioration of the specimen.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

10. Since urine specimens present no biological hazards, Standard Precautions are not required in handling and testing.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

11. When disposing of urine, protective facewear should be worn to protect the face from splashes.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1. When urine is to be cultured for bacteria, the specimen required is:

a.	random	d.	preserved
b.	clean-catch	e.	24-hour
c.	first morning

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

2. Failure of kidney function and suppression of urine production is:

a.	polyuria	d.	nocturia
b.	oliguria	e.	diuresis
c.	anuria

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

3. The reference range for a 24-hour urine volume for a newborn is:

a.	20350 mL	c.	7502,000 mL
b.	300600 mL	d.	none of the above

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

4. Which of the following is true of a 24-hour urine specimen?

a.	It is used primarily for qualitative testing.
b.	It is used to assess kidney function.
c.	It is used for culturing bacteria.
d.	It must not contain a preservative.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

5. Which of the following is true of a urine quality assessment program?

a.	The lid of the container should be labeled with the patient ID.
b.	Specimens must be tested within an hour of collection or be refrigerated.
c.	Specimens can be left on the counter for 24 hours before testing.
d.	Most patients know how to properly collect a specimen and need no instruction.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

6. Which of the following is true of a clean-catch urine collection?

a.	The patient uses one towelette for cleansing.
b.	The first portion of the urine stream is collected.
c.	It cannot be used for bacterial culture.
d.	The urine container must be labeled with the patients name and the date and time of collection.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

7. If a urine specimen is to be cultured for bacteria:

a.	the specimen must be the first morning specimen
b.	the culture must be set up before the routine urinalysis is done
c.	the container need not be sterile
d.	the urine can be left on the lab bench 24 hours before culture
e.	none of the above

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

8. Which of the following is true of urines collected for drug screening?

a.	A credit card can be used for identification.
b.	The urine is collected in the usual urine container.
c.	The patient must sign a consent form.
d.	The specimen is placed with other reference laboratory samples for pickup.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

9. Which of the following is usually NOT measured in a 24-hour urine?

a.	protein	c.	creatinine
b.	bacteria	d.	calcium

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

10. If a urine cannot be tested within 1 hour of the collection time, it should be:

a.	refrigerated overnight	c.	refrigerated at 4F6F for up to 4 hours
b.	frozen to preserve it	d.	discarded

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

11. Which of the following specimens should NOT be a midstream specimen?

a.	random	c.	clean-catch
b.	24-hour	d.	timed

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

1. A midstream urine sample collected after the urethral opening and surrounding tissues have been cleansed is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

clean-catch urine

clean-catch

clean catch

clean catch urine

 

PTS:   1

 

2. A urine sample collected at any time, without regard to diet or time of day is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

random urine specimen

random urine

random specimen

 

PTS:   1

 

3. Quantitative urine tests require a(n) ____________________-hr urine specimen.

 

ANS:

24

twenty-four

 

PTS:   1

 

4. When urine specimens cannot be refrigerated or must be transported, deterioration can be avoided by the addition of ____________________.

 

ANS:

preservative

fixative

 

PTS:   1

 

5. The absence of urine production is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  anuria

 

PTS:   1

 

6. Excessive production of urine is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  polyuria

 

PTS:   1

 

7. The urine specimen that is normally more concentrated and has an acid pH is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

first morning specimen

first morning urine

 

PTS:   1

 

8. An unpleasant ammonia-like odor in urine is usually caused by urea being broken down by ____________________.

 

ANS:  bacteria

 

PTS:   1

 

9. Urines collected to test for protein, barbiturates, or drugs of abuse can be preserved by ____________________.

 

ANS:  refrigeration

 

PTS:   1

 

10. Sinks used for discarding urine specimens should be flushed with water and ____________________.

 

ANS:

appropriate laboratory disinfectant

laboratory disinfectant

disinfectant

surface disinfectant

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a.	urine for drug screen	f.	oliguria
b.	quality assessment	g.	24-hr urine specimen
c.	20350 mL	h.	1,500 mL average
d.	biohazard	i.	MSDS
e.	surface disinfectant	j.	clean-catch urine

 

 

1. required for quantitative tests

 

2. splashes and aerosols

 

3. urine preservative

 

4. middle portion of the urine flow

 

5. temperature recorded immediately after collection

 

6. urine spills

 

7. reference range for newborn daily urine volume

 

8. reference range for adult daily urine volume

 

1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

2. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

3. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

4. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

5. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

6. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

7. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

8. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-2: Chemistry Specimen Collection and Processing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

1. Plasma is the liquid from blood that has been allowed to clot.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

2. Standard policy is to draw blood from a vein above an intravenous line.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

3. If plasma is to be used in a test, it should be removed from the cellular portion of blood as soon as possible after collection.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

4. For chemistry analysis, blood must be free of hemolysis.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

5. The red/gray stopper tube contains a polymer gel and a silica activator.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

6. In the CLSI order of draw, the red-top clot tubes are drawn first.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

7. Mistakes occurring when blood is drawn contibute to preanalytical error.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1. Which is true of hemolysis of red blood cells?

a.	It can be caused by overcentrifugation.
b.	It releases potassium into the plasma or serum.
c.	It can be caused by excess shaking of the blood sample.
d.	all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

2. How does the time of specimen collection affect certain tests?

a.	Concentrations of iron are constant throughout the day.
b.	Triglycerides do not change after eating.
c.	Glucose and cholesterol usually change after eating.
d.	Corticosteroids are not affected by the time of collection.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

3. Which is true of plasma and/or serum?

 

Once the order is placed, the order will be delivered to your email less than 24 hours, mostly within 4 hours. 

If you have questions, you can contact us here

a.	Plasma is formed when a tube of blood is allowed to clot.
b.	Plasma contains all of the dissolved chemical constituents.
c.	Serum contains all of the dissolved chemical constituents plus the coagulation proteins.
d.	none of the above