Biology 2nd Edition By Robert J. Brooker Test Bank

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Biology 2nd Edition By Robert J. Brooker Test Bank

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COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS
Biology 2nd Edition By Robert J. Brooker Test Bank
 
Sample  Question 

 

Chapter 02

Test Bank: The Chemical Basis of Life I: Atoms, Molecules, and Water

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. These are the smallest functional units of matter that form all chemical substances and that cannot be further broken down by ordinary chemical or physical means.
    A. protons
    B.  neutrons
    C.  electrons
    D.  atoms
    E.  molecules

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The atomic number of an atom is
    A. the number of protons in the atom.
    B.  the number of neutrons in the atom.
    C.  the number of protons and electrons in the atom.
    D.  the number of protons and neutrons in the atom.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following represents the smallest functional unit of living organisms?
    A. atoms
    B.  molecules
    C.  proteins
    D.  water
    E.  salt

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Oxygen has an atomic mass of 16 and an atomic number of 8.
    A. Oxygen has 16 neutrons.
    B.  Oxygen has 8 electrons.
    C.  Oxygen can form two bonds with other atoms.
    D.  Oxygen has 16 neutrons and 8 electrons.
    E.  Oxygen has 8 electrons and can form two bonds with other atoms.

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The nucleus of an atom is composed of
    A. protons.
    B.  neutrons.
    C.  electrons.
    D.  protons and neutrons.
    E.  protons and electrons.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Ernest Rutherfords key experiment on alpha particle bombardment of gold foil was important to the development of
    A. detection methods for protons.
    B.  alpha particle emitters.
    C.  gold as an element.
    D.  the modern model for atomic structure.
    E.  the concept that atoms have a homogenous distribution of protons throughout the atom.

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. If a scientist were to shoot protons through an atom, for instance like Rutherford did with gold foil, he or she would likely find that
    A. most of the protons passed straight through the atom.
    B.  few of the protons passed straight through the atom.
    C.  most of the protons deflected or bounced back from the atom.
    D.  most of the protons would be absorbed by the atom.
    E.  All of the choices are correct.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The first, inner-most energy shell of an atom
    A. can have a maximum of 8 electrons.
    B.  can have a maximum of 2 electrons.
    C.  is called the 2p orbital.
    D.  is called the 1s orbital and can have a maximum of 8 electrons.
    E.  is called the 2p orbital and can have a maximum of 2 electrons.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Figure: 2.03
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. If carbon has an atomic mass of 12 and an atomic number of 6 then it has
    A. 6 electrons.
    B.  12 electrons.
    C.  18 electrons.
    D.  as many as 6 but no more than 12.
    E.  None of the choices are correct.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Tritiated hydrogen (3H) differs from hydrogen (1H) in that
    A. 3H has 2 more protons than 1H.
    B.  3H has 2 more electrons than 1H.
    C.  3H has 2 more neutrons than 1H.
    D.  3H has the same number of neutrons as 1H.
    E.  3H has a different electron configuration than 1H.

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Isotopes are different forms of the same element that
    A. differ in their number of neutrons.
    B.  have the same numbers of protons.
    C.  are often used in medicine to track biological processes.
    D.  can be found in nature.
    E.  All the choices are correct.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following represents an abundant element found in living organisms?
    A. calcium.
    B.  iron.
    C.  iodine.
    D.  hydrogen.
    E.  sodium.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Nitrogen has 7 electrons and can form a maximum of ________ bonds with other elements.
    A. 1
    B.  2
    C.  3
    D.  4
    E.  5

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Molecules
    A. are derived from the chemical bonding of two or more atoms.
    B.  differ in their physical properties from the atoms from which they were derived.
    C.  are important to biological processes.
    D.  can form from the covalent bonding of two or more atoms.
    E.  All the choices are correct.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a molecule?
    A. H2
    B.  H2O
    C.  CH4
    D.  O2
    E.  H

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which of the following represents an ion?
    A. Ca2+
    B.  He
    C.  H2
    D.  CO2
    E.  KCl

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Carbon has 4 electrons and hydrogen has 1 electron in their outer most electron shells. How many bonds can form between a carbon atom and hydrogen atoms?
    A. 0
    B.  1
    C.  2
    D.  3
    E.  4

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. This is formed when an atom loses an electron to another atom.
    A. polar covalent bond
    B.  cations and anions that can form ionic bonds
    C.  covalent bond
    D.  hydrogen bond
    E.  nonpolar covalent bond

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which of the following chemical bonds is the strongest?
    A. hydrogen
    B.  Van der Waal forces
    C.  hydrophobic interactions
    D.  ionic
    E.  covalent

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. What type of bonding is likely to occur between two water molecules or strands of DNA?
    A. covalent
    B.  ionic
    C.  hydrogen
    D.  both hydrogen and covalent
    E.  both hydrogen and ionic

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Carbon and hydrogen have similar electronegativities and combine together to form hydrocarbon molecules. What type of bonds form between these atoms?
    A. hydrogen
    B.  ionic
    C.  polar covalent
    D.  nonpolar covalent
    E.  electrostatic

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. What type of bonds form from the unequal sharing of electrons?
    A. hydrogen
    B.  ionic
    C.  polar covalent
    D.  nonpolar covalent
    E.  electrostatic

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. In water, MgCl2 dissociates into Mg2+ and Cl. Based on this information what type of bond is involved in the formation of MgCl2?
    A. hydrogen
    B.  ionic
    C.  polar covalent
    D.  nonpolar covalent
    E.  electrostatic

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE of a chemical reaction?
    A. It requires no energy.
    B.  It rarely occurs with a catalyst present.
    C.  It changes a substance from one form to another.
    D.  It is limited to only a few types of organisms.
    E.  They are usually irreversible.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. When one oxygen atom shares two pairs of electrons with another oxygen atom, O2 is formed via a(n)
    A. single covalent bond.
    B.  double covalent bond.
    C.  triple covalent bond.
    D.  ionic bond.
    E.  hydrogen bond.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following is LEAST hydrophilic?
    A. Na+
    B.  HCO3
    C.  oil
    D.  amphipathic molecules
    E.  CO2Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Amphipathic molecules
    A. possess only hydrophilic properties.
    B.  possess only hydrophobic properties.
    C.  possess both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties.
    D.  possess neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic properties.
    E.  Tend not to interact with other molecules.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. For water to vaporize
    A. energy must be supplied.
    B.  energy must be released.
    C.  hydrogen bonds are broken.
    D.  both energy must be supplied and hydrogen bonds broken.
    E.  both energy must be released and hydrogen bonds broken.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The molarity of a solution is
    A. a measure of solute concentration.
    B.  the weight of a solid substance.
    C.  often expressed as grams per unit volume.
    D.  reflects a measure of the amount of oil dissolved in a water.
    E.  a scientific term for determining the solubility of a substance in water.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Based on the colligative properties of water, what would happen if one were to add a solute to water?
    A. The freezing point of water would decrease.
    B.  The freezing point of water would increase.
    C.  The boiling point of water would increase.
    D.  Both the freezing point of water would decrease and the boiling point of water would increase.
    E.  Nothing would change with respect to the freezing point or boiling point of water.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which of the following is not true of water?
    A. It is polar.
    B.  It has a high heat of vaporization.
    C.  It has cohesive properties.
    D.  Its evaporation helps regulate body temperature.
    E.  It is a relatively poor solvent.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. If orange juice has a pH of 4 then
    A. the H+ concentration is 4.
    B.  it is an acidic solution.
    C.  it is an alkaline solution.
    D.  it is an acidic solution with a H+ concentration of 4.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. pH buffers
    A. minimize fluctuations in the pH of solutions.
    B.  are usually weak acids and bases.
    C.  are common in biological fluids.
    D.  limit major shifts in the amount of H+ and OH in solution.
    E.  All of the choices are correct.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. If one were to add a strong acid like HCl to an aqueous solution, which would result?
    A. H+ would be released into solution.
    B.  The pH would increase.
    C.  The pH would decrease.
    D.  Both H+ would be released into solution and the pH would increase.
    E.  Both H+ would be released into solution and the pH would decrease.

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which is true about a pH buffer?
    A. It increases the amount of H+ in an acidic solution.
    B.  It reduces the amount of H+ in an acidic solution.
    C.  It reduces the amount of H+ in an alkaline solution.
    D.  It increases the amount of OH ions in an alkaline solution.
    E.  It reduces the amount of OH in an acidic solution.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Considering solutions with the following pH, which is alkaline?
    A. 8
    B.  7
    C.  6
    D.  5
    E.  All are alkaline.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE when comparing solutions with a pH of 6 and a pH of 8?
    A. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 100 times higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
    B.  The solution with a pH of 8 has a 2 times higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
    C.  The solution with a pH of 8 has a 100 times lower concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
    D.  The solution with a pH of 8 has a 2 times lower concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
    E.  The hydrogen ion concentration does not appreciably differ between a solution with a pH of 8 versus that with a pH of 6.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. One gram of hydrogen, which has an atomic mass of 1, would have fewer atoms than 1 gram of carbon that has an atomic mass of 12.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Isotopes are different forms of the same element.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Sulfur 35 (35S) is an isotope of 32S. These elements differ in their number of neutrons.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Helium is an inert gas that rarely reacts with other elements because it has the maximum number of valence electrons in its outer shell.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. If lithium has an atomic number of 3 then it will have 1 valence electron.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The electronegativity of an atom is a measure of its ability to attract electrons to its outer shell from another atom.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Table salt forms from sodium and chloride via hydrogen bonding.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Molecules are generally rigid structures and rarely change shape.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The presence of salt helps prevent oceans from freezing.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. A dehydration reaction that builds larger molecules from smaller units requires the addition of a water molecule.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The hydroxyl (OH) concentration of a solution with a pH of 8 would be 10-6 molar.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Most enzymes or bioactive molecules work effectively within a broad range of pH.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Buffers minimize fluctuations in the pH of a solution.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

Chapter 04

Test Bank: General Features of Cells

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. Which of the following are principles of the cell theory or cell doctrine?
    A. All living things are composed of one or more cells.
    B.  Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms.
    C.  New cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division.
    D.  Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms and new cells form from pre-existing cells by cell division.
    E.  All living organisms are composed of one or more cells, cells are the smallest units of life, and new cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which two cell scientists are credited with the formulation of the cell theory, also known as the cell doctrine?
    A. Watson and Crick
    B.  Schleiden and Schwann
    C.  Schleiden and Hooke
    D.  Schwann and Jenner

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. This is a tool that enables researchers to study the structure and function of cells.
    A. magnifying glass
    B.  microscope
    C.  tunneling assay
    D.  digital recording
    E.  differential centrifugation

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. With which type of microscopy would one observe three-dimensional structure?
    A. fluorescence microscopy
    B.  standard light microscopy
    C.  confocal microscopy
    D.  differential-interference light microscopy
    E.  transmission electron microscopy

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following reflects a primary difference between transmission and scanning electron microscopy?
    A. Transmission electron microscopy has high resolution, but scanning electron microscopy does not.
    B.  Transmission electron microscopy shows contrast, but scanning electron microscopy does not.
    C.  Transmission electron microscopy has much higher magnification than scanning electron microscopy.
    D.  Transmission electron microscopy shows two-dimensional ultrastructure, while the scanning electron microscopy shows three-dimensional structure.
    E.  Transmission electron microscopy uses light as an illumination source, while scanning electron microscopy uses electron beams as an illumination source.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following type of microscopy would be most effective in visualizing the fine structure of viruses and cytoskeletal filaments 1025 nanometers in diameter?
    A. standard light microscopy
    B.  phase-contrast light microscopy
    C.  transmission electron microscopy
    D.  darkfield light microscopy
    E.  differential-interference microscopy

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Figure: 4.01
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Among those listed, which type of microscopy would provide the highest resolution?
    A. phase-contrast light microscopy
    B.  scanning electron microscopy
    C.  Nomarski differential-interference light microscopy
    D.  confocal microscopy
    E.  fluorescence microscopy

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Prokaryotes
    A. lack a true nucleus.
    B.  lack true DNA.
    C.  use the cell membrane rather than ribosomes for making proteins.
    D.  contain numerous organelles.
    E.  are relatively benign cells incapable of harming organisms.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following structures distinguishes plant cells from animal cells?
    A. chloroplast
    B.  nucleus
    C.  plasma membrane
    D.  golgi apparatus
    E.  mitochondria

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true of prokaryotes?
    A. They lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
    B.  DNA is located within the cytosol.
    C.  They have a simpler structure relative to eukaryotes.
    D.  They possess membrane-bound organelles.
    E.  They are relatively small compared with eukaryotes.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The cell wall is a common feature to
    A. prokaryotic cells only.
    B.  plant cells only.
    C.  animal cells only.
    D.  prokaryotic and plant cells.
    E.  prokaryotic, plant, and animal cells.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Plasma membranes are a feature of
    A. all cells.
    B.  prokaryotic cells only.
    C.  eukaryotic cells only.
    D.  plant cells only.
    E.  animal cells only.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. During a period of low water availability, which prokaryotic structure would protect a cell from dessication (drying out)?
    A. pili
    B.  plasma membrane
    C.  nucleus
    D.  cell wall

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The nucleus is to eukaryotes as the ________ is to prokaryotes.
    A. pili
    B.  glycocalyx
    C.  ribosome
    D.  nucleoid
    E.  cell wall

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following might account for the general structural and functional differences between a nerve and smooth muscle cell within an individual?
    A. The proteome differs between muscle and nerve cells.
    B.  The genome (DNA) differs between muscle and nerve cells.
    C.  The relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells.
    D.  The proteome and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells.
    E.  The genome (DNA) and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. FtsZ, MreB, and CreS proteins regulate the shape and structure of bacterial (prokaryotes) cells. These proteins are homologous to what structure in eukaryotes?
    A. extracellular matrix
    B.  DNA processing enzymes
    C.  cytoskeleton
    D.  organelles
    E.  cell wall

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the statements about the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) is INCORRECT?
    A. Translation is the process of protein synthesis.
    B.  Proteins are synthesized in the cytosol.
    C.  The synthesis of proteins is a catabolic process.
    D.  The synthesis of proteins requires ribosomes.
    E.  Proteins are synthesized from mRNA template.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which cytoskeletal structures represent a highly diverse group of tension-bearing fibers important to the maintenance of cell shape?
    A. microtubules
    B.  intermediate filaments
    C.  microfilaments
    D.  centrioles
    E.  pili

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. The cytoskeleton and motor proteins are important for which of the following processes?
    A. cell motility
    B.  whipping motion of sperm flagella
    C.  movement of amoeba by lamellopodia
    D.  muscle contraction
    E.  All of the choices are correct.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true for cilia or flagella?
    A. They are involved in cell motility.
    B.  They require ATP to work.
    C.  They are composed of microfilaments.
    D.  They require motor proteins to work.
    E.  They are composed of an internal structure called the axoneme.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. This cytoskeletal structure is composed of actin and regulates cell shape, cell movement, and muscle contraction.
    A. microfilaments
    B.  intermediate filaments
    C.  microtubules
    D.  both microfilaments and intermediate filaments
    E.  both microfilaments and microtubules

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that produce which of the following molecules?
    A. steroids
    B.  lipids
    C.  glucose
    D.  starches
    E.  proteins

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. In animal cells microtubules grow from which structure?
    A. origination centers in the plasma membrane
    B.  outer membrane of the nuclear envelope
    C.  centrosomes containing centrioles
    D.  dimerization centers located throughout the cytosol
    E.  the tips of the chromosomes

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. This specialized structure stores pigments, water, inorganic ions and maintains turgor pressure.
    A. Golgi apparatus
    B.  vacuole
    C.  peroxisomes
    D.  vesicles
    E.  lysosomes

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Which would be the most accurate endomembrane route through which a protein is secreted from a cell?
    A. Golgi apparatuslysosomevesiclesplasma membrane
    B.  plasmidplasma membranenuclear envelopesmooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C.  nuclear envelopevesiclesGolgi apparatusplasma membrane
    D.  rough endoplasmic reticulumlysosomesvesiclescell membrane
    E.  rough endoplasmic reticulum Golgi apparatusvesicles plasma membrane

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
    A. lysosome-protein synthesis
    B.  cytoskeleton-microfilaments
    C.  nucleus-DNA replication
    D.  cell membrane-lipid bilayer
    E.  Golgi apparatus-modification, processing, and sorting of macromolecules

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following relationships between cell structures and their respective functions is NOT correct?
    A. chloroplast: photosynthesis
    B.  cell wall: support, protection
    C.  mitochondria: formation of ATP
    D.  ribosomes: site of protein synthesis
    E.  Golgi apparatus: breakdown of macromolecules

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. This organelle is responsible for the biosynthesis of proteins that are destined for secretion by the cell.
    A. Golgi apparatus
    B.  lysosome
    C.  vesicles
    D.  endoplasmic reticulum
    E.  mitochondria

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Due to the lack of an enzyme to break down lipids, excess accumulation of lipids in the brain leads to a human disease called Tay Sachs syndrome. Which organelle is likely to be the one that lacks the proper enzyme needed for lipid breakdown?
    A. lysosome
    B.  tonoplast
    C.  mitochondrion
    D.  Golgi apparatus
    E.  peroxisome

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. This organelle is important for the detoxification of alcohol in the liver.
    A. lysosome
    B.  smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C.  mitochondrion
    D.  Golgi apparatus
    E.  peroxisome

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. The gonads produce steroids.  Which organelle would likely be present in this tissue?
    A. ribosome
    B.  lysosome
    C.  smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    D.  mitochondria
    E.  contractile vacuole

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT about ribosome biosynthesis and structure?
    A. Ribosomes are composed of two subunits.
    B.  Ribosomes are composed of RNA.
    C.  All components of the ribosome are produced in the cytosol.
    D.  Ribosomal proteins are produced in the cytosol.
    E.  Ribosomes are composed of proteins.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is not a constituent of the nucleus?
    A. pores
    B.  envelope or membrane
    C.  chromosomes
    D.  chromatin
    E.  protein modifying enzymes

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Lysosomes digest intracellular debris, such as organelles, through the process of ____________.
    A. endocytosis
    B.  phagocytosis
    C.  autophagy
    D.  pinocytosis
    E.  excocytosis

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. In eukaryotes, which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane?
    A. barrier for separating extracellular and intracellular environments of a cell
    B.  cell-to-cell adhesion
    C.  selective transport
    D.  ATP synthesis
    E.  cell signaling

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following statements about peroxisomes is INCORRECT?
    A. They were once viewed as semiautonomous.
    B.  They assist in detoxifying molecules.
    C.  They possess a single membrane.
    D.  They possess their own DNA.
    E.  They possess an enzyme that prevents accumulation of hydrogen peroxide and free radicals.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Which of the following organelles can grow and divide to reproduce themselves?
    A. mitochondria only
    B.  chloroplasts only
    C.  peroxisomes only
    D.  both mitochondria and chloroplasts
    E.  Mithochondria, chloroplasts, and lysosomes can reproduce themselves.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Cyanide binds and impairs one of the molecules involved in the production of ATP. Which organelle does cyanide act upon?
    A. peroxisome
    B.  lysosome
    C.  ribosome
    D.  endoplasmic reticulum
    E.  mitochondria

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Tissues that are metabolically active and utilize large amounts of energy would be rich in
    A. ribosomes.
    B.  lysosomes.
    C.  smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
    D.  mitochondria.
    E.  contractile vacuoles.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Which of the following plant organelle is a colorless plastid that stores starch in roots?
    A. thyloplasts
    B.  chloroplasts
    C.  chromoplasts
    D.  amyloplasts
    E.  both chloroplasts and chromoplasts

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of both mitochondrial and chloroplast genomes?
    A. Composed of a double stranded chromosome.
    B.  Composed of a single circular chromosome
    C.  Has a small genome.
    D.  Chloroplast genome is larger than the mitochondrial genome.

 

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of a signal recognition particle (SRP)?
    A. Binds to a receptor in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
    B.  Docks the ribosome over a channel protein.
    C.  Helps a vesicle bud from the endoplasmic membrane (ER)
    D.  Recognizes the endoplasmic membrane (ER) signal sequence

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.06
Topic: Cells
 

 

True / False Questions
 

  1. The cell is the basic structural/functional unit common to all living organisms.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Resolution, contrast, and magnification are three important parameters in microscopy.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Fluorescence microscopy enables researchers to label and visualize a particular type of cellular protein or organelle.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The flagellum is used for cell motility in eukaryotes only.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. All plant cells contain centrioles.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Figure: 4.07
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. The presence of a cell wall and chloroplasts are two features that distinguish a plant cell from an animal cell.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The genome rather than proteome most specifically determines how a cell looks and functions.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The glycocalyx is a protective coating that prevents bacteria from dehydration and potential destruction by the host organism.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Myosin is a motor protein that walks along intermediate filaments.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The flagellum is composed of a 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules called the axoneme.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. The Golgi apparatus is much like a warehouse; it processes proteins and sorts them for delivery to certain parts of the cell.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Materials move in and out of the nucleus via endocytosis and exocytosis.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Both lysosomes and peroxisomes are important for detoxifying substances in the cell.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Photosynthesis in plants occurs in chloroplasts.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The Endosymbiosis Theory best describes the origins of peroxisomes in eukaryotes.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. In eukaryotes, most proteins contain short stretches of amino acid sequences called sorting signals which direct the protein to the correct cellular location.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.06
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The first step in cotranslational sorting is the peptide is directed to the endoplasmic reticulum.
    TRUE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.06
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Chaperones keep proteins destined for the mitochondrial matrix in their three dimensional active structure.
    FALSE

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 4.06
Topic: Cells
 

Chapter 12

Test Bank: Gene Expression at the Molecular Level

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. Bread mold can grow in a minimal medium without supplements (wild type) while certain mutated strains (mutants) can only grow in a minimal medium that is supplemented with specific intermediates found in the following metabolic pathway for arginine synthesis:
    minimal > ornithine -> citrulline > arginine, where enzyme 1 converts the precursor to ornithine, enzyme 2 converts ornithine to citrulline, and enzyme 3 converts citrulline to arginine.
    A strain that can grow in a minimal medium containing arginine, but NOT in a minimal medium containing citrulline or ornithine would have a mutation in the gene that encodes for
    A.enzyme 1.
    B. enzyme 2.
    C. enzyme 3.
    D. both enzymes 1 and 3.
    E. both enzymes 2 and 3.

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Bread mold can grow in a minimal medium without supplements (wild type) while certain mutated strains (mutants) can only grow in a minimal medium that is supplemented with specific intermediates found in the following metabolic pathway for arginine synthesis:
    minimal > ornithine -> citrulline > arginine, where enzyme 1 converts the precursor to ornithine, enzyme 2 converts ornithine to citrulline, and enzyme 3 converts citrulline to arginine.
    Which of the following would be TRUE of a strain that can grow in minimal medium containing ornithine, citrulline, or arginine, but not in minimal medium alone?
    A.The strain would have a mutation in the gene that encodes enzyme 1.
    B. The strain would have a mutation in the gene that encodes enzyme 2.
    C. The strain would have a mutation in the gene that encodes enzyme 3.
    D. The strain would have a mutation in the gene that encodes for enzymes 1, 2, and 3.
    E. The strain would be the wild type with no genetic mutations.

 

Blooms Level: Analyze
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. The process that produces mRNA from DNA is called
    A.transcription.
    B. translation.
    C. replication.
    D. processing.
    E. post-translational modification.

 

Blooms Level: Analyze
Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. The processes of transcription and translation are collectively known as
    A.RNA processing.
    B. gene duplication.
    C. protein synthesis.
    D. DNA synthesis.
    E. gene expression.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. ________ is directly produced from the transcription of a eukaryotic gene.
    A.rRNA
    B. pre-mRNA
    C. mRNA
    D. DNA
    E. Protein

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. ________ is to transcription as ________ are to translation?
    A.RNA splicesome; ribosomes
    B. RNA polymerase; ribosomes
    C. RNA polymerase; RNA splicesomes
    D. DNA polymerase; RNA polymerase
    E. DNA polymerase; ribosomes

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. A(n) ______ is an organized unit of DNA sequences that enables a segment of DNA to be transcribed into RNA and ultimately results in the formation of a functional product.
    A.chromosome
    B. trait
    C. allele
    D. gene
    E. expression

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following are products of nonstructural genes, and are therefore never translated?
    A.transfer RNA
    B. ribosomal RNA
    C. messenger RNA
    D. transfer RNA and ribosomal RNA
    E. ribosomal RNA and messenger RNA

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Transcription begins near a site in the DNA called the ________, while the terminator specifies the end of transcription.
    A. promoter
    B.  enhancer
    C.  response element
    D.  transcription unit
    E.  regulatory sequence

 

Blooms Level: Understand
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following regions of a structural gene contains the information that specifies an amino acid sequence?
    A.promoter region
    B. transcribed region
    C. terminator
    D. regulatory sequence
    E. enhancer region

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following statements about RNA polymerase in bacteria is INCORRECT?
    A.It binds the promoter region of a gene.
    B. It is bound to a sigma factor during initiation of transcription.
    C. It synthesizes RNA.
    D. It catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the 5 end of a growing RNA strand.
    E. It dissociates from the DNA at the terminator.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. If a DNA template strand has a sequence of 3 TACAATGTAGCC 5, then the RNA produced from it will be which sequence?
    A. 3TACAATGTAGCC5
    B.  5ATGTTACATCGG3
    C.  5AUGUUACAUCGG3
    D.  3AUGUUACAUCGG5
    E.  3ATGTTACATCGG5

 

Blooms Level: Apply
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following basic features of transcription is NOT shared by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
    A. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes have a promoter site.
    B.  RNA polymerase transcribes genes in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
    C.  Gene transcription involves initiation, elongation, and termination in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
    D.  The complexity of protein components involved in transcription is similar for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
    E.  The initiation of transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes involves the interactions of more than one protein.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following proteins is involved in synthesizing messenger RNA in eukaryotes?
    A. RNA polymerase I
    B.  RNA polymerase II
    C.  RNA polymerase III
    D.  sigma factor
    E.  both RNA polymerase I and III

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which protein influences the ability of RNA polymerase to transcribe genes?
    A. DNA polymerases
    B.  DNA helicases
    C.  transcription factors
    D.  snRNPs
    E.  tRNA

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Intervening sequences that are transcribed, but not translated into protein are called
    A. exons.
    B.  introns.
    C.  splicesomes.
    D.  transposons.
    E.  transcription factors.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following would occur if a cells splicesomes were mutated so they no longer functioned normally?
    A.Introns would remain in the mature mRNA.
    B. Exons would be missing in the mature mRNA.
    C. Transcription would cease.
    D. A functional protein would still be produced.
    E. RNA processing would remain intact.

 

Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about RNA processing in eukaryotes is INCORRECT?
    A. Introns are simply excised out of pre-mRNA to produce the mature mRNA.
    B.  A complex composed entirely of proteins is used to remove introns from the pre-mRNA.
    C.  A poly A tail is added on to the 3 end of the mRNA.
    D.  A 7-methylguanosine cap is added on to the 5 end of the mRNA.
    E.  Processing occurs in the nucleus.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. ________ enables a single gene to encode two or more polypeptides that are different in their amino acid sequence.
    A. Reverse transcription
    B.  Self-splicing
    C.  Capping
    D.  Alternative splicing
    E.  Regulatory splicing

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following molecule(s) exhibits self-splicing?
    A.rRNA
    B. tRNA
    C. mRNA
    D. rRNA and tRNA
    E. rRNA and mRNA

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the 5 cap and mRNA processing is TRUE?
    A. The addition of a 5 cap to mRNA occurs while the pre-mRNA is being made.
    B.  The 5 cap helps stabilize the mature mRNA.
    C.  The 5 cap prevents the degradation of mature mRNA.
    D.  The 5 cap is added to the pre-mRNA by splicesomes.
    E.  The 5 cap is a group of adenosine molecules.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. What is the function of the poly A tail?
    A. The poly A tail is required for the proper exit of mRNA from the nucleus.
    B.  The poly A tail allows mRNA to bind to the ribosome.
    C.  The poly A tail increases mRNA stability in eukaryotes.
    D.  The poly A tail increases mRNA stability in prokaryotes.
    E.  The poly A tail serves as a termination sequence for RNA polymerase III.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. How many nucleotides are contained in a single codon?
    A. 1
    B.  3
    C.  4
    D.  6
    E.  9

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Because more than one codon can specify the same amino acid, the genetic code is said to be
    A.repetitive.
    B. redundant.
    C. reverse.
    D. degenerate.
    E. degrading.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following statements about the mRNA start codon is INCORRECT?
    A.The start codon is only a few nucleotides from the ribosomal binding site.
    B. The start codon is usually GGA.
    C. The start codon is usually AUG.
    D. The start codon specifies the amino acid, methionine.
    E. The start codon defines the reading frame.

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of the translation machinery?
    A.mRNA
    B. tRNA
    C. translation factors
    D. ribosomes
    E. protein polymerase

 

Blooms Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which of the following serves as the translator or intermediary between an mRNA codon and an amino acid?
    A.rRNA
    B. snRNA
    C. tRNA
    D. siRNA
    E. 

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