Biology Concepts And Investigations 2nd Edition By Hoefnagels -Test Bank

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Biology Concepts And Investigations 2nd Edition By Hoefnagels -Test Bank

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COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Biology Concepts And Investigations 2nd Edition By Hoefnagels -Test Bank

 

Sample  Question 

Chapter 002 The Chemistry of Life

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is not a true statement?

A. Nitric oxide consists of one atom of nitrogen and one atom of oxygen

 

B. Nitric oxide is a gas

 

C. Nitric oxide passes freely into and out of cells

 

D. Nitric oxide is a harmful substance found in smog and acid rain

 

E. Nitric oxide has no true function in living organisms

 

2. The primary elements making up living organisms are:

A. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, calcium, iron, and iodine

 

B. Carbon, oxygen, iron, chlorine, sulfur, and phosphorous

 

C. Carbon, hydrogen, iron, sulfur, sodium, and calcium

 

D. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, nitrogen, and phosphorous

 

E. Carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium, iron, and phosphorous

 

3. The atomic number of an atom or element is:

A. The number of neutrons in the nucleus

 

B. The number of electrons in the nucleus

 

C. The number of protons in the nucleus

 

D. The number of neutrons in the orbitals

 

E. The number of protons in the orbitals

 

4. An ion is:

A. An atom that has gained electrons

 

B. An atom that has a positive charge

 

C. An atom that has lost electrons

 

D. An atom that has a negative charge

 

E. All are correct

 

5. The mass number of an atom is defined as:

A. The total number of protons, neutrons, and electrons of an atom

 

B. The total number of protons and electrons of an atom

 

C. The total number of protons and neutrons of an atom

 

D. The total number of neutrons and electrons of an atom

 

E. The total number of protons of an atom

 

6. Isotopes of the same element are different from one another in that:

A. They have a different number of protons

 

B. They have a different number of neutrons

 

C. They have a different number of electrons

 

7. The first energy shell of an atom contains a maximum of:

A. One electron

 

B. Two electrons

 

C. Four electrons

 

D. Eight electrons

 

E. Sixteen electrons

 

8. If an atom has a valence shell that is full it:

A. Is highly reactive

 

B. Is not chemically stable

 

C. Is highly likely to combine with other atoms

 

D. Is not inert

 

E. Is chemically stable

 

9. The second energy shell of an atom contains a maximum of:

A. Eight electrons

 

B. Two electrons

 

C. Four electrons

 

D. One electron

 

E. Sixteen electrons

 

10. In a covalent bond:

A. Atoms share electrons

 

B. Atoms of opposite charges attract each other

 

C. Atoms share a proton

 

11. An ionic bond is a bond in which:

A. Atoms share electrons

 

B. Atoms share a proton

 

C. Atoms of opposite charges attract each other

 

12. In the example of ionic bond formation between sodium and chlorine, which of the following is not a true statement?

A. Na is the chemical symbol for sodium

 

B. Chlorine donates an electron

 

C. Sodium donates an electron

 

D. Sodium becomes positively charged

 

E. The bond that is formed is a strong bond

 

13. In the example of ionic bond formation between sodium and chlorine:

A. Na is the chemical symbol for chlorine

 

B. Sodium accepts an electron

 

C. Chlorine accepts an electron

 

D. Chlorine becomes positively charged

 

E. Both sodium accepts an electron and chlorine becomes positively charged are correct

 

14. If a covalent bond is polar:

A. Electrons are not shared by atoms

 

B. Protons are shared by atoms

 

C. The bond is not important to living cells

 

D. One of the atoms has a partial negative charge

 

E. The bond is not a strong bond

 

15. A hydrogen bond:

A. Is a strong bond

 

B. Does not occur within a molecule

 

C. May occur between molecules

 

D. Is not important to living cells

 

E. Usually has a hydrogen atom with a partial negative charge

 

16. Evaporation is:

A. The conversion of a liquid into a vapor

 

B. The conversion of a solid into a vapor

 

C. The conversion of a vapor into a liquid

 

D. The conversion of a vapor into a solid

 

E. All are correct

 

17. Ice floats on water because:

A. The molecules are closer together in ice than in water

 

B. The molecules are farther apart in ice than in water

 

C. Ice is more dense than water

 

18. In a chemical equation:

A. The reactants are on the right of the yields arrow

 

B. Reactants and products are on both sides of the yields arrow

 

C. The products are on the left of the yields arrow

 

D. The reactants are on the left of the yields arrow

 

E. The number of atoms of each element may be different on the two sides of the yields arrow

 

19. An acid:

A. Has a value above seven on the pH scale

 

B. Is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution

 

C. Has a value of seven on the pH scale

 

D. Is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution

 

E. All are correct

 

20. A base:

A. Has a value of 7 on the pH scale

 

B. Is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution

 

C. Is a chemical that absorbs hydrogen ions from a solution

 

D. Has a value below 7 on the pH scale

 

21. A substance having a pH of 2 would best be described as:

A. Neutral

 

B. A weak acid

 

C. A weak base

 

D. A strong base

 

E. A strong acid

 

22. A substance having a pH of 6 would best be described as:

A. A weak acid

 

B. Neutral

 

C. A weak base

 

D. A strong acid

 

E. A strong base

 

23. A substance having a pH of 7 would best be described as:

A. A weak acid

 

B. A weak base

 

C. Neutral

 

D. A strong acid

 

E. A strong base

 

24. A substance having a pH of 8 would best be described as:

A. Neutral

 

B. A weak base

 

C. A weak acid

 

D. A strong acid

 

E. A strong base

 

25. A substance having a pH of 13 would best be described as:

A. A weak acid

 

B. A weak base

 

C. Neutral

 

D. A strong acid

 

E. A strong base

 

26. Organic molecules are defined as chemical compounds that contain:

A. Carbon

 

B. Carbon and oxygen

 

C. Carbon and nitrogen

 

D. Carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

 

E. Carbon and hydrogen

 

27. The four major groups of organic compounds are:

A. Fats, waxes, carbohydrates, and amino acids

 

B. Carbohydrates, lipids, steroids, and monosaccharides

 

C. Lipids, fats, waxes, and steroids

 

D. Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids

 

E. Carbohydrates, proteins, amino acids, and nucleic acids

 

28. A process by which cells build large molecules from monomers is:

A. Hydrolysis

 

B. Reproduction

 

C. Condensation

 

D. All are correct

 

29. A process by which cells break polymers down into smaller units is:

A. Hydrolysis

 

B. Condensation

 

C. Reproduction

 

D. All are correct

 

30. Examples of monosaccharides are:

A. Glucose, maltose, and cellulose

 

B. Glucose, lactose, and maltose

 

C. Glucose, galactose, and fructose

 

D. Glucose, lactose, and cellulose

 

E. None of these are correct

 

31. Which is not a lipid?

A. A triglyceride

 

B. A phospholipid

 

C. A wax

 

D. A sterol

 

E. A starch molecule

 

32. The primary building block (monomer) of proteins is:

A. A glucose molecule

 

B. A fatty acid

 

C. A nucleotide

 

D. An amino acid

 

E. Four interconnected rings

 

33. An amino acid contains:

A. Nitrogen

 

B. Nitrogen and carbon

 

C. Carbon

 

D. Phosphorous

 

E. Carbon and phosphorous

 

34. A peptide bond:

A. Is an ionic bond in proteins

 

B. Is a covalent bond in carbohydrates

 

C. Is a covalent bond in proteins

 

D. Is an ionic bond in carbohydrates

 

35. The primary building block (monomer) of nucleic acids is:

A. A nucleotide

 

B. A glucose molecule

 

C. A fatty acid

 

D. An amino acid

 

E. Four interconnected rings

 

36. The three major components in a nucleotide are:

A. Glucose, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate group

 

B. Glucose, a fatty acid, and glycerol

 

C. A nitrogen base, a six carbon sugar, and a phosphate group

 

D. A nitrogen base, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group

 

E. A carboxyl group, an R group, and an amino group

 

37. The four nitrogen bases found in RNA are:

A. Adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil

 

B. Adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil

 

C. Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and uracil

 

D. Thymine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil

 

E. None of these are correct

 

38. Water is best described as which of the following?

A. An ion

 

B. A non-polar molecule

 

C. An atom

 

D. A polar molecule

 

E. An element

 

39. Individual water molecules bind to each other through:

A. Covalent bonds

 

B. Ionic bonds

 

C. Hydrogen bonds

 

D. Hydrophobic bonds

 

E. Non-polar bonds

 

40. Within a single molecule of water, ____ bonds are formed between oxygen and hydrogen?

A. Ionic bonds

 

B. Covalent bonds

 

C. Hydrogen bonds

 

D. Hydrophobic bonds

 

E. Nuclear bonds

 

41. The term pH refers to:

A. [H+]2

 

B. [H+]

 

C. -log[H+]

 

D. -[H+]

 

E. log[H+]

 

42. You can painlessly wade into a pool, but doing a belly flop off of the high diving board hurts because of ____ in water.

A. Waters high density

 

B. Adhesion

 

C. Waters high boiling point

 

D. A neutral pH

 

E. Cohesion

 

43. Trees take up water hundreds of feet away by:

A. Waters high density

 

B. Cohesion

 

C. Waters high boiling point

 

D. Adhesion

 

E. A neutral pH

 

44. Sugars (CH2O)n dissolve well in water because sugars form ____ bonds with water.

A. Covalent bonds

 

B. Ionic bonds

 

C. Hydrogen bonds

 

D. Hydrophobic bonds

 

E. Non-polar bonds

 

45. Blood pH is closely maintained at a pH of 7.4. A patient whose blood pH drops below 7.35 is suffering from metabolic acidosis and can go into a coma. What happens to the concentration of H+ ions in a patient with a blood pH of 6.4?

A. H+ concentration is decreased 10-fold

 

B. H+ concentration is decreased 2-fold

 

C. H+ concentration is increased 2-fold

 

D. H+ concentration is decreased 4-fold

 

E. H+ concentration is increased 10-fold

 

  Scientists use carbon dating to determine the age of fossils. 14C is a rare isotope of carbon that has a half life of 5730 years and decays into 14N. By measuring the amount of 14C remaining in a fossil, scientists can estimate when the organism died out to about 60,000 years. The atomic number of C is 6, and of N is 7.

 

46. 14C and 14N are both:

A. Atoms

 

B. Molecules

 

C. Compounds

 

D. Polymers

 

E. Ions

 

47. The most common isotope of carbon is 12C. 14C will have ____ than 12C.

A. More protons

 

B. More neutrons

 

C. Fewer neutrons

 

D. Fewer protons

 

E. More electrons

 

48. When 14C decays to 14N the number of protons ____ and the number of neutrons ___.

A. Decreases by 1; increases by 1

 

B. Stays the same; increases by 1

 

C. Increases by 1; stays the same

 

D. Increases by 1; decreases by 1

 

E. Decreases by 1; stays the same

 

49. 14C and 14N have the same:

A. Atomic number

 

B. Number of protons

 

C. Atomic mass

 

D. Number of neutrons

 

E. Number of electrons

 

50. If a fossil has only 25% of its 14C remaining, how old is it?

A. 5,730 years

 

B. 2,865 years

 

C. 1,432.5 years

 

D. 22,920 years

 

E. 11,460 years

 

51. Many digestive enzymes are hydrolases. What do these enzymes have in common?

A. They use water to form bonds between monomers

 

B. They use water to break bonds in monomers

 

C. They use water to break bonds in polymers

 

D. They use water to form bonds between polymers

 

E. They release water in forming bonds between monomers

 

52. ____ bonds are formed between monomers to form a polymer.

A. Ionic bonds

 

B. Covalent bonds

 

C. Hydrogen bonds

 

D. Hydrophobic bonds

 

E. Nuclear bonds

 

53. In making beer, barley is partially fermented to produce malt. Barley is not sweet, but the malt is. What is the best explanation for this observation?

A. Fermentation allows the barley to make simple sugars from sunlight and carbon dioxide

 

B. Fermentation releases sugars stored in organelles in the barley

 

C. Fermentation causes the starch in the barley to taste sweet

 

D. The fermentation breaks starch in the barley down into simple sugars in the malt

 

E. Fermentation breaks down the simple sugars in the barley

 

54. Saturated fats have long straight tails of fatty acids, while unsaturated fats have kinks in their tails due to double bonds. These kinks prevent the fats from packing together as tightly. Animals that are ectothermic (cold blooded) need to keep their membranes fluid at cooler temperature and thus use ______ in their membranes.

A. Mostly unsaturated fats

 

B. Mostly saturated fats

 

C. Equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fats

 

D. Carbohydrates

 

E. Proteins

 

55. Saturated fats have long straight tails of fatty acids, while unsaturated fats from vegetables have kinks in their tails due to double bonds. These kinks prevent the fats from packing together as tightly. Hydrogenated vegetable oils have hydrogens added back to the double bonds and thus behave like ____.

A. Unsaturated fats

 

B. Waxes

 

C. Carbohydrates

 

D. Protein

 

E. Saturated fats

 

56. The polymers with the most complex and diverse three-dimensional structure are:

A. Saturated fats

 

B. Unsaturated fats

 

C. Proteins

 

D. Waxes

 

E. Carbohydrates

 

57. A nucleotide contains which of the following?

A. Amino acid

 

B. Sugar

 

C. Sugar and nitrogenous base

 

D. Nitrogenous base

 

E. Nitrogenous base and amino acid

 

58. How are the monomers in proteins joined?

A. Phosphodiester bonds between amino acids

 

B. Peptide bonds between amino acids

 

C. Peptide bonds between nucleotides

 

D. Phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides

 

E. Peptide bonds between carbohydrates

 

59. How are the monomers in nucleic acids joined?

A. Peptide bonds between carbohydrates

 

B. Peptide bonds between amino acids

 

C. Phosphodiester bonds between amino acids

 

D. Peptide bonds between nucleotides

 

E. Phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides

 

60. Which question can evolution not explain?

A. The diversity of species on Earth

 

B. The common ancestry of all species on Earth

 

C. How life started on Earth

 

D. The same types of molecules are found in all organisms

 

E. The origin of new species

 

61. What hypothesis were the scientists testing?

A. Can organic molecules be made on Earth?

 

B. Can extraterrestrial life be detected on meteorites?

 

C. Can life be created from a mixture of organic molecules?

 

D. What conditions existed on Earth when life first began?

 

E. Were organic molecules found on meteorites extraterrestrial?

 

62. How did the scientists determine if an organic molecule was extraterrestrial?

A. By looking for a decrease in 13C and 15N in the meteorite

 

B. By measuring the amount of amino acids in the meteorite

 

C. By measuring the amount of nucleotides in the meteorite

 

D. By looking for an increase in 13C and 15N in the meteorite

 

E. By measuring the total amount of carbon and nitrogen in the meteorite

 

63. How are 13C and 15N different from the more abundant isotopes 12C and 14N?

A. 13C and 15N each have one more neutron than 12C and 14N

 

B. 13C and 15N each have one more proton than 12C and 14N

 

C. 13C and 15N each have one less neutron than 12C and 14N

 

D. 13C and 15N each have one less proton than 12C and 14N

 

E. 13C and 15N each have one less electron than 12C and 14N

 

64. In Table 2.7 why were amino acids analyzed for 15N?

A. Nitrogen is not present in nucleotides or carbohydrates

 

B. Nitrogen is not present in nucleotides or lipids

 

C. Nitrogen is not present in carbohydrates or lipids

 

D. Nitrogen is not present in amino acids or carbohydrates

 

E. Nitrogen is not present in nucleotides or amino acids

 

65. Which of the following conclusions can be made from Table 2.7?

A. Glycine is a more abundant amino acid in the meteorite than in terrestrial samples

 

B. 15N is more abundant in amino acids from the meteorite than from terrestrial samples

 

C. Amino acids in the meteorite contain more nitrogen than amino acids from terrestrial samples

 

D. 13C is more abundant in amino acids from the meteorite than from terrestrial samples

 

E. Uracil is a more abundant amino acid in the meteorite than in terrestrial samples

 

66. What is significant about detecting uracil in meteorites?

A. Uracil is found in DNA which is thought to be the original genetic material

 

B. Uracil is a precursor for many other biological molecules including DNA and proteins

 

C. Uracil is a very complex molecule that can only be made in living cells, thus confirming that extraterrestrial life exists

 

D. Uracil is found in RNA which is thought to be the original genetic material

 

E. Uracil can catalyze reactions

 

67. What essential function would lipids play in the origin of life?

A. The formation of membranes

 

B. Storage of information

 

C. Catalysis of reactions

 

D. Formation of a cytoskeleton

 

E. Anaerobic fermentation

 

 

True / False Questions

68. A peptide bond is a covalent bond formed between the amino group of one amino acid and the R group of another amino acid.

True    False

 

69. Cohesion is a property of water in which water molecules tend to stick together.

True    False

 

70. A substance in which other substances dissolve is called a solute.

True    False

 

71. If ice were more dense than water, then during the winter most organisms living in ponds and lakes in colder climates would become entrapped in ice and freeze.

True    False

 

72. A fatty acid is unsaturated if there is at least one double bond between the carbon atoms in that fatty acid.

True    False

 

73. An essential amino acid is an amino acid that is found in all types of foods.

True    False

 

74. The primary function of hemoglobin is to regulate the level of sugar in the blood.

True    False

 

75. If a protein is denatured, its structure has been changed enough to make the protein nonfunctional.

True    False

 

76. Proteins store the genetic information of the cell and transmit it to the next generation.

True    False

Chapter 004 The Energy of Life

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The metabolic rate of individuals is influenced by:

A. Age

 

B. Weight

 

C. The amount of thyroxin produced by the thyroid

 

D. The amount of body fat

 

E. All are correct

 

2. The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water by one degree Celsius is a:

A. Calorie

 

B. Joule

 

C. Kilocalorie

 

D. Measure of density

 

E. None of these are correct

 

3. An example (examples) of potential energy is (are):

A. Chemical bonds and concentration gradients

 

B. Light and chemical bonds

 

C. Concentration gradients

 

D. Chemical bonds

 

E. Light

 

4. Which statement is not part of the first law of thermodynamics?

A. The amount of energy in the universe is constant

 

B. Energy cannot be created or destroyed

 

C. Energy can be converted to other forms of energy

 

D. Any energy transformation loses some energy to its surroundings as heat

 

E. None of these are correct

 

5. Which of the following is not an example of kinetic energy?

A. Heat

 

B. Light

 

C. Sound

 

D. The energy in chemical bonds

 

E. Random molecular movement

 

6. Entropy is:

A. Order

 

B. Complexity

 

C. Disorder

 

D. Both order and disorder are correct

 

E. Both complexity and disorder are correct

 

7. An endergonic reaction is a reaction that:

A. Requires an input of energy

 

B. That typically builds complex molecules from smaller molecules

 

C. Releases energy to its surroundings

 

D. Both releases energy to its surroundings and typically build complex molecules from smaller molecules are correct

 

E. Both requires an input of energy and typically builds complex molecules from smaller molecules are correct

 

8. In which type of metabolic pathway is the product of the last reaction also the starting material of the first?

A. A straight chain

 

B. A cycle

 

C. A branched chain

 

D. This is impossible

 

9. Sucrose is a disaccharide consisting of the monosaccharides:

A. Fructose and glucose

 

B. Glucose and glucose

 

C. Galactose and fructose

 

D. Glucose and galactose

 

10. The chemical formula for glucose is:

A. C6H6O6

 

B. C12H6O12

 

C. C12H22O11

 

D. C6H6O12

 

E. C6H12O6

 

11. The energy source that powers the process of photosynthesis is:

A. Water

 

B. Glucose

 

C. Carbon dioxide

 

D. Sunlight

 

E. Oxygen

 

12. The reactants for photosynthesis are:

A. Water and carbon dioxide

 

B. Organic compounds

 

C. Glucose and water

 

D. Glucose and carbon dioxide

 

E. Glucose and sunlight

 

13. The breakdown of glucose to carbon dioxide and water is:

A. An endergonic reaction in photosynthesis

 

B. An endergonic reaction in cellular respiration

 

C. An exergonic reaction in photosynthesis

 

D. An exergonic reaction in cellular respiration

 

14. At chemical equilibrium:

A. No reactions are occurring in either direction

 

B. There are no more products being formed

 

C. There are no more reactants for the cell to utilize

 

D. The amount of reactants is equal to the amount of products

 

E. Reaction rates are in balance

 

15. Oxidation-reduction reactions:

A. Transfer electrons from one molecule to another

 

B. Are not used by living cells

 

C. Transfer protons from one molecule to another

 

D. Reduce the amount of oxygen in the cell

 

E. Increase the amount of oxygen in the cell

 

16. Oxidation means:

A. The gain of oxygen by a cell

 

B. The loss of electrons from a molecule

 

C. The loss of oxygen by a cell

 

D. The gain of electrons by a molecule

 

17. Reduction means:

A. The gain of oxygen by a cell

 

B. The loss of oxygen from a cell

 

C. The gain of electrons by a molecule

 

D. The loss of electrons by a molecule

 

18. Oxidation-reduction reactions:

A. Never occur at the same time

 

B. Remove electrons from both molecules involved

 

C. Remove protons from one molecule and join them to another molecule

 

D. Occur simultaneously

 

E. Remove oxygen from the cell

 

19. Coupled reactions:

A. Are reactions in which a exergonic reaction drives an endergonic reaction

 

B. Are reactions in which a exergonic reaction drives a spontaneous reaction

 

C. Are reactions in which a endergonic reaction drives an exergonic reaction

 

D. Are reactions in which a endergonic reaction drives a spontaneous reaction

 

20. The process of phosphorylation:

A. Releases a phosphate group from one molecule

 

B. All are correct

 

C. Adds a phosphate group to a molecule

 

D. May change the shape of the target molecule

 

E. May energize the target molecule

 

21. An enzyme:

A. Is not catalytic

 

B. Is not necessary to sustain life in a cell

 

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C. Both A and B are correct