Biotechnology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark Test Bank

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Biotechnology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark Test Bank

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Biotechnology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark Test Bank

Clark: Biotechnology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 2: DNA, RNA, and Protein

 

 

  1. According to the Central Dogma of molecular biology
    1. RNA is translated from a DNA template then transcribed.
    2. Proteins are transcribed at same time they are translated.

*c. The flow of information is from DNA to RNA to protein.

  1. Reverse Transcriptase is used to remove introns from RNA.

 

  1. Transcription begins when
    1. RNA polymerase finds a 3 UTR.
    2. When the first AUG in a template is recognized.
    3. An open reading frame is discovered.

*d. RNA polymerase recognizes a promoter sequence, binds to the DNA, and synthesizes RNA from the 5 end towards the 3 end of the new piece.

 

  1. The sequence of mRNA will be the same as the ____________ strand of DNA.

*a. Sense

  1. Antisense
  2. Antiparallel
  3. None of the above are correct

 

  1. DNA and RNA are identical in structure except for:
    1. DNA has uracil and RNA has thymine
    2. RNA has ribose and DNA has deoxyribose
    3. RNA has uracil and DNA has thymine
    4. RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ribose
    5. A and B are correct
    6. C and D are correct

*g. B and C are correct

  1. A and D are correct

 

  1. During prokaryotic transcription termination, the following are key factors for Rho-independent termination EXCEPT for:
    1. Two inverted repeats
    2. A stretch or length of repeated adenines (As)
    3. Hairpin structure

*d. A binding site for a special helicase called rho

 

  1. Bacterial operons are transcribed as a single polycistronic mRNA.

*a. True

  1. False

 

  1. Eukaryotic genes are translated as a single monocistronic mRNA.
    1. True

*b. False

 

  1. RNA polymerase I
    1. Transcribes genes that encode proteins
    2. Transcribes the genes for tRNA, ssRNA, and other small RNAs

*c. Transcribes the gene for large ribosomal RNAs

 

  1. RNA polymerase II

*a. Transcribes genes that encode proteins

  1. Transcribes the genes for tRNA, ssRNA, and other small RNAs
  2. Transcribes the gene for large ribosomal RNAs

 

  1. RNA polymerase III
    1. Transcribes genes that encode proteins

*b. Transcribes the genes for tRNA, ssRNA, and other small RNAs

  1. Transcribes the gene for large ribosomal RNAs

 

  1. ____________are regions in eukaryotic DNA that are thousands of base pairs away from a promoter, yet they regulated that promoter.

*a. Enhancers

  1. Insulators
  2. Promoter
  3. Operator

 

  1. __________ is the sequences that RNA polymerase recognizes and to which it binds.
    1. Enhancers
    2. Insulators

*c. Promoters

  1. Operator

 

  1. Prokaryotic repressor proteins bind to the _____________.
    1. Enhancers
    2. Insulators
    3. Promoters

*d. Operator

 

  1. _____________ sequences prevent eukaryotic enhances from activating the wrong genes.
    1. Enhancer

*b. Insulator

  1. Promoter
  2. Operator

 

  1. The lac operon has three structural genes controlled by:
    1. Three promoters and one operator, one for each structural gene
    2. One promoter for all three genes, but a separate operator for each gene

*c. One promoter and one operator to control all three structural genes

  1. None of the above

 

  1. What gene encodes the lac operon repressor protein?
    1. LacY
    2. LacZ
    3. LacA

*d. LacI

 

  1. The operon is kept off in the absence of lactose by:
    1. LacI protein binds to the promoter, and prevents the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
    2. Allolactose is not available to the promoter for lacI, therefore RNA polymerase cannot transcribe the lacI gene.

*c. LacI protein binds to the operator. and preventing binding of RNA polymerase.

  1. Allolactose binds to lacI protein which allows it to bind to the operator, preventing transcription.

 

  1. The global activation of this operon is carried out by:
    1. IPTG, when glucose is present.

*b. CRP in the presence of cAMP, which activates other operons as well.

  1. The sigma factor needed to turn on most default transcription in E. coli.
  2. CRP in the presence of lactose, which activates other operons as well.

 

  1. DNA structure plays a role in eukaryotic gene expression by:
    1. Condensing some regions but not others.
    2. Methylating regions called CG islands to keep them silent.
    3. Tighten or loosen nucleosomes by deacetylating or acetylating histone tails.
    4. Inactivation of one X chromosome of the pair found in females.

*e. All of the above are ways to control eukaryotic gene expression.

 

  1. Transcription in eukaryotes and prokaryotes differs in the followings ways EXCEPT:
    1. Prokaryotic transcription is coupled to translation

*b. Eukaryotic DNA has a cap added to the 3 end.

  1. Eukaryotic DNA has a poly(A) tail at the 3 end.
  2. Splicing factors are used to remove introns in the eukaryotic message.
  3. All of the above are differences between eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

 

  1. All of these are differences in translation between eukaryotes and prokaryotes EXCEPT:

*a. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic genetic codes are different from each other.

  1. Each organism has its own codon bias, certain codons but not other codons are used more often for the same amino acid.
  2. They are carried out on ribosomes of different size.
  3. Prokaryotes rely on an RBS or Shine-Delgarno sequence to direct the ribosome to bind.
  4. Prokaryotes use formyl-methionine as the first amino acid in the peptide.

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning translation is true?
    1. Occurs when a tRNA with methionine binds to the E-site.
    2. Is catalyzed by the proteins bound in the ribosome.
    3. Requires ATP for energy.

*d. Uses a genetic triplet code that is universal.

  1. Requires polysome structures in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

 

  1. The symbiotic theory concerning the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts is supported by:
    1. Many mitochondrial and chloroplast proteins are encoded in the nucleus.
    2. They are found inside eukaryotic cells, just like all bacteria.

*c. They contain ribosomes that are similar in size to prokaryotic ribosomes.

  1. They use a genetic code that is completely different than prokaryotes or eukaryotes.

 

  1. Epigenetics .
  2. includes changes and modifications to histones and nucleosomes
  3. are inherited changes other than mutations in nucleotide sequence
  4. includes imprinting from methylation of genes
  5. may be mediated by noncoding RNAs

*e. all of the above

 

  1. EF-T is made of two separate proteins, EF-Tu and EF-Ts, which _____________.

*a. Uses a phosphate group from GTP to catalyze the addition of a new tRNA to the A-site

  1. Oversees the translocation of the tRNA from the P-site to the E-site
  2. Binds to the stop codons and initiates the release of the ribosome, completed mRNA, and the used tRNAs.
  3. Recognizes the 5 cap structure and scans for the first AUG

 

 

 

 

Clark: Biotechnology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 4: DNA Synthesis and PCR

 

 

  1. DNA polymerase
  2. Keeps the two complementary strands of DNA separated.
  3. Untwists strands of DNA.
  4. Links the 3-OH to the 5-PO4 forming the phosphodiester bridge.

*d. Processively adds a complementary nucleotide to the 3end of a new strand of DNA.

  1. Synthesizes short RNA primers.

 

  1. DNA ligase
  2. Keeps the two complementary strands of DNA separated.
  3. Untwists strands of DNA.

*c. Links the 3-OH to the 5-PO4 forming the phosphodiester bridge.

  1. Processively adds a complementary nucleotide to the 3end of a new strand of DNA.
  2. Synthesizes short RNA primers.

 

  1. DNA gyrase
  2. Keeps the two complementary strands of DNA separated.

*b. Untwists strands of DNA.

  1. Links the 3-OH to the 5-PO4 forming the phosphodiester bridge.
  2. Processively adds a complementary nucleotide to the 3end of a new strand of DNA.
  3. Synthesizes short RNA primers.

 

  1. Single-stranded binding protein

*a. Keeps the two complementary strands of DNA separated.

  1. Untwists strands of DNA.
  2. Links the 3-OH to the 5-PO4 forming the phosphodiester bridge.
  3. Processively adds a complementary nucleotide to the 3end of a new strand of DNA.
  4. Synthesizes short RNA primers.

 

  1. Primase
  2. Keeps the two complementary strands of DNA separated.
  3. Untwists strands of DNA.
  4. Links the 3-OH to the 5-PO4 forming the phosphodiester bridge.
  5. Processively adds a complementary nucleotide to the 3end of a new strand of DNA.

*e. Synthesizes short RNA primers.

 

  1. The origin of replication is a

*a. Specific AT-rich sequence where replication begins

  1. Special structure found at the end of eukaryotic chromosomes
  2. A sequence found only in the plasmid vector backbone
  3. Small pieces of DNA on the lagging strand of DNA
  4. Protein that is found in a complex of many proteins involved in replication
  5. Okazaki fragments are
  6. Specific AT-rich sequences where replication begins
  7. Special structures found in the middle of eukaryotic chromosomes
  8. Sequences important for selecting bacterial cells containing vectors after transformation

*d. Small pieces of DNA on the lagging strand of DNA during replication

  1. Small protein subunits in the replisome

 

  1. Semi-conservative replication refers to
  2. The small pieces of DNA on the lagging strand of DNA during replication
  3. The special process of adding new repeats to the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes

*c. DNA that has one completely new strand and one old strand

  1. A group of proteins that are essential for the addition of a complementary strand of DNA to a template strand

 

  1. The following proteins are part of the replisome except:
  2. DNA polymerase
  3. Sliding clamp
  4. Single-stranded binding protein

*d. RNA polymerase

 

  1. Eukaryotic chromosomes contain the following structures except:
  2. Origins of replication
  3. Telomeres
  4. Centromeres

*d. Dideoxynucleotides

 

  1. Which choice below matches the protein to its correct role in the mismatch repair process of coli?
  2. MutH recognizes bulges and distortion that are the result of the mismatch.
  3. MutL recognizes the bulges and distortions that are the result of the mismatch.

*c. MutS recognizes the bulges and distortions that are the result of the mismatch.

  1. MutH holds the mismatch plus a GATC site together so that the new strand can be degraded.
  2. MutL finds the nearest GATC site and nicks the non-methylated strand.

 

  1. All of the following are differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic replication EXCEPT:
  2. Eukaryotic replicates more than one chromosome but prokaryotes replicate one.

*b. Eukaryotes use DNA polymerase I but prokaryotes use DNA polymerase III.

  1. Eukaryotic replication occurs only during the S phase of the cell cycle whereas prokaryotic replication occurs continuously during growth.
  2. Eukaryotes have problems replicating ends whereas prokaryotes have problems with supercoiled circles.

 

  1. Which of the following is true of DNA that is made enzymatically in vitro?
  2. It cannot be larger than 20 bp.
  3. It uses UTP instead of dTTP.

*c. It uses a DNA primer instead of an RNA primer.

  1. It is impossible to enzymatically make DNA in vitro.

 

  1. A chemical synthesizer can be used to create oligonucleotides by adding nucleotides one by one to a glass bead. With this technology, which of the following is true?
  2. The technique was used by Watson and Crick to determine the structure of DNA.
  3. Must be performed anaerobically so that no oxidation can occur.
  4. Requires DNA polymerase I but DNA polymerase II cannot be used.

*d. Artificial chemical synthesis is performed in a 3 to 5 direction.

 

  1. With respect to Sanger sequencing of DNA, which of the following statements is not true.
  2. After synthesizing DNA, fragments are separated via gel electrophoresis.
  3. The large fragment of DNA polymerase I called Klenow can be used.
  4. Dideoxynucleotides are used as chain terminators.

*d. To visualize the DNA, radioactivity must not be used.

  1. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) was developed to amplify small segments of DNA. Which of the following samples cannot be used in a PCR reaction.
  2. Bacterial cells.
  3. Individual cells of Caenorhabditis elegans.
  4. Purified DNA.
  5. Human tissues.

*e. All of the above can be used.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT needed for a PCR reaction?
  2. Taq polymerase, or other thermostable polymerase.
  3. Oligonucleotide primers specific for the DNA of interest.

*c. ATP

  1. Nucleotide triphosphates.
  2. Sample of DNA to be tested.

 

  1. Taq polymerase, from Thermus aquaticus, has properties that make it ideal for PCR. These properties include:
  2. Ability to withstand the heat of the denaturation step.
  3. Has helicase activity to unwind the template DNA.
  4. Functions well at 70 C so that replication can take place.
  5. All of the above are properties useful for PCR

*e. Some of the above are properties that are useful for PCR.

 

  1. A key to successful PCR is the design of the primers. Which of the following factors does not need to be considered in primer design.
  2. Primers must be able to anneal to target DNA at similar temperatures
  3. Must not have a span of DNA between them that is too large

*c. The entire sequence of the primer must anneal to the template DNA

  1. Must not form hairpins with themselves
  2. Must anneal to opposite strands such that area in middle is replicated

 

  1. Automated sequencing combines features of PCR and of DNA sequencing. Which of the following is true.
  2. A thermocycler is not needed.
  3. Two primers are needed to amplify the region

*c. The dideoxynucleotides each have different fluorescent tags.

  1. Samples of the DNA are separated using gel electrophoresis.
  2. None of the above are true.

 

  1. PCR primers that are designed based on protein sequence are called ______________ because
  2. degenerate, one has no idea what the DNA sequence might be.
  3. random, one has no idea what the DNA sequence might be.

*c. degenerate, most amino acids are encoded by more than one codon.

  1. random, most amino acids are encoded by more than one codon.
  2. none of the above.

 

  1. Reverse transcriptase PCR is useful for
  2. Using viral DNA in PCR reactions
  3. Finding upstream and downstream sequence.
  4. Using mRNA with exons removed in order to obtain cRNA.

*d. Using mRNA with introns removed in order to obtain cDNA.

 

  1. Which of the following is a method using PCR to clone genes.
  2. using primers with 1 bp change to generate mutations.

*b. using primers with restriction enzyme sequences on the 5 end.

  1. using primers that sequence outwards to obtain upstream and downstream sequence.
  2. none of the above.

 

  1. Which statement regarding next-generation sequencing is not true?
  2. DNA fragments are mounted in separate locations on the platform.
  3. Flashes of light are emitted whenever a base is added during 454 sequencing.
  4. Fluorescent dyes are used in Illumina sequencing.
  5. No dideoxynucleotides are used in next-generation sequencing.

*e. Replication in vitro is not necessary for next-generation sequencing.

 

  1. In sequencing, the DNA fragments are bound to a solid surface via a flow cell.

*a. Illumina

  1. 454
  2. chain termination
  3. Sanger
  4. Cycle

 

  1. Flashes of light are emitted whenever a base is added in
  2. Illumina

*b. 454

  1. chain termination
  2. Sanger
  3. cycle

 

  1. Massively parallel sequencing is a term used to describe next-sequencing because

*a. each method of sequencing has millions of fragments being sequenced simultaneously

  1. the lines on the flow cell are parallel to each other
  2. massive amounts of dideoxynucleotides are used to replicate the DNA
  3. fragments are aligned parallel to one another so that complementary base pairs can form between the strands

 

  1. Dideoxynucleotides are used in the following sequencing method:
  2. 454

*b. Sanger

  1. Illumina
  2. None of the above

 

 

 

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