Brunnstrom Clinical Kinesiology 6th Edition by Peggy A. Houglum Test Bank

Brunnstrom  Clinical Kinesiology  6th Edition by Peggy A. Houglum  Test Bank
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Chapter 1: Basic Concepts in Kinesiology: Kinematics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Hinge joints exhibit __________ degree(s) of freedom.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

____ 2. A condyloid or ellipsoidal joint is characterized by motion in ____________ planes.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

____ 3. Which of the following is always classified as a pathological end-feel?
a. Soft
b. Firm
c. Empty
d. Hard

____ 4. All of the following are characteristics of closed kinetic chain (CKC) motion except:
a. joints just proximal to the fixed segment, which move in a predictable manner
b. promotion of joint stability
c. motion generally occurs faster during a CKC motion compared with open kinetic chain motion
d. decreased shear forces

____ 5. Which of the following is not a function of ligaments?
a. Connect tendon to bone
b. Provide joint stability
c. Limit joint motion
d. Provide proprioceptive feedback

____ 6. Gliding occurs between two articular surfaces when:
a. one joint surface moves parallel to the plane of the adjoining joint surface
b. each subsequent point on one surface contacts a new point on the other surface
c. one point of contact on each surface remains in constant contact with a fixed location on the other surface
d. one joint surfaces moves perpendicular to the plane of the adjoining joint surface

____ 7. Closed packed positions of synovial joints are best characterized by ____________ joint congruency and ____________ gliding between articular surfaces
a. maximal, maximal
b. maximal; minimal
c. minimal; minimal
d. minimal; maximal

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 8. The convex-concave principle states that if a convex surface moves on a concave surface, the roll and glide occur in the same direction.

____ 9. Kinematics is associated with motion of a body or segment without regard to the forces that produce motion.

____ 10. Arthrokinematics is concerned with gross bony motions.

____ 11. During rotary motion, the farther the distance from the axis of motion, the greater the velocity of that point.

____ 12. Adduction is associated with movements of a segment further away from midline of the body.

____ 13. Goniometry is useful in quantifying translatory motion between adjacent bony segments.

____ 14. Closed kinematic chain motions occur when the distal segment is fixed and the proximal segments move.

Chapter 1: Basic Concepts in Kinesiology: Kinematics
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: A PTS: 1

2. ANS: B PTS: 1

3. ANS: C PTS: 1

4. ANS: C PTS: 1

5. ANS: A PTS: 1

6. ANS: A PTS: 1

7. ANS: B PTS: 1

TRUE/FALSE

8. ANS: F PTS: 1

9. ANS: T PTS: 1

10. ANS: F PTS: 1

11. ANS: T PTS: 1

12. ANS: F PTS: 1

13. ANS: F PTS: 1

14. ANS: T PTS: 1
Chapter 2: Mechanical Principles: Kinetics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Motion that occurs about the x-axis takes place in the ____________ plane.
a. sagittal
b. frontal
c. coronal
d. transverse

____ 2. Motion that occurs about the y-axis takes place in the ___________ plane.
a. sagittal
b. frontal
c. coronal
d. transverse

____ 3. The z-axis may also be referred to as the _____________ axis.
a. anterior-posterior
b. medial-lateral
c. superior-inferior
d. vertical

____ 4. Velocity of rotary motion is best expressed in:
a. meters/second
b. meters/second2
c. feet/second
d. degrees/second

____ 5. If excessive, this source of force may retard joint motion:
a. gravity
b. muscular
c. externally applied resistance
d. friction

____ 6. If insufficient, this source of force may promote instability:
a. gravity
b. muscular
c. externally applied resistance
d. friction

____ 7. The perpendicular distance from the force vector to a joints axis of motion is referred to as the:
a. moment
b. lever arm
c. moment arm
d. torque

____ 8. Your patient is having difficulty performing shoulder abduction from 0 to 90 with a cuff weight around his forearm while sitting in a chair. To make the exercise as easy as possible you recommend that he or she move the cuff weight ____________ and perform the activity in a _________ position.
a. further distal; side-lying
b. more proximal; side-lying
c. further distal; standing
d. more proximal; standing

____ 9. According to Newtons First Law of Motion:
a. Acceleration is directly proportional to the net force applied to a body.
b. Acceleration is inversely proportional to the mass of the moving object.
c. A body at rest will remain at rest.
d. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

____ 10. According to Newtons Second Law of Motion:
a. Acceleration is directly proportional to the net force applied to a body.
b. Acceleration is directly proportional to the mass of the moving object.
c. A body at rest will remain at rest.
d. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

____ 11. Related to first class lever systems, which of the following is most accurate?
a. The point of resistance application lies between the force and the axis.
b. They are the most common lever system in the human body.
c. They exhibit a force advantage so large weights can be supported or moved by a smaller force.
d. The axis of rotation is located between the force and resistance arms.

____ 12. Your patient is performing shoulder flexion from 0 to 180 in a standing position with his elbow extended while holding a 5-pound weight in his hand. The torque imposed by the 5-pound weight is greatest at ______.
a. 0
b. 45
c. 90
d. 135
e. 180

____ 13. The normal force vector is primarily responsible for producing:
a. compression
b. distraction
c. rotation
d. tangential motion

____ 14. Assuming a right triangle, to calculate the cosine of theta one should:
a. divide the opposite side by the hypotenuse
b. divide the adjacent side by the hypotenuse
c. divide the adjacent side by the opposite side
d. divide the hypotenuse by the adjacent side

____ 15. To reduce the effect of weight on a joint a clinician could:
a. have the patient perform movements of the affected joint parallel to the Earth
b. incorporate the use of a sling
c. encourage the use of crutches
d. recommend aquatic therapy
e. All of the above

____ 16. The center of gravity of a body is:
a. the theoretical point around which the mass of the object is balanced
b. easier to find in asymmetrical objects than it is in symmetrical objects
c. the point of origin for gravitys vector force
d. A and C
e. All of the above

____ 17. The center of gravity of the adult body in the anatomic position is:
a. anterior to the border of the 11th thoracic vertebra
b. anterior to second sacral vertebra
c. just below the xiphoid process of the sternum
d. just above the knee joint

____ 18. Archimedes principle states that a body submerged in a liquid is buoyed up by a force ___________ the weight of the liquid displaced.
a. less than
b. equal to
c. greater than
d. two times

____ 19. Theoretically as it relates to lever arms, sit-ups are most difficult when the arms are positioned __________ of the individual.
a. at the side
b. on the stomach
c. across the chest
d. clasped behind the head

____ 20. A person being propelled in a wheelchair is an example of _____________ equilibrium.
a. static
b. dynamic
c. neutral
d. stable

____ 21. Which of the following represents the least degree of stability?
a. high center of gravity; large base of support
b. low center of gravity; large base of support
c. high center of gravity; small base of support
d. low center of gravity; small base of support

____ 22. Your patient had an above knee amputation on the left. In which direction did the patients center of gravity shift?
a. Up and to the right
b. Down and to the right
c. Up and to the left
d. Down and to the left

____ 23. A body is stable when the line of gravity runs __________the center of its base of support.
a. above
b. next to
c. through
d. below

____ 24. Using crutches ______________ an individuals base of support.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not alter
d. negatively influences

____ 25. Most levers in the body are classified as ___________ class levers.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 26. The terms, weight and mass are defined the same and may be used interchangeably.

____ 27. Muscles can only produce force on their bony segments when they contract.

____ 28. Vector forces can be combined when more than one force is applied to a body or segment.

____ 29. The resultant force is the simplest force that produces the same effect as all the forces acting together.

____ 30. Whenever the force arm of the muscle working is shorter than the resistance arm of the segment moved by the muscle, the muscle must exert less force to lift the segment.

____ 31. Third class levers, although mechanically inefficient, offer the benefit of a large excursion in range of motion with little or small changes in muscle length.

____ 32. If a torque produces or tends to produce a counterclockwise motion of the coordinate system, the sign is positive.

____ 33. When a body part is positioned and supported to move in a plane perpendicular to the earth, the effects of gravity are reduced so a muscle weaker than 3/5 is able to move a segment.

____ 34. The center of gravity rises when an individual elevates his or her arms overhead.

____ 35. The direction of gravity is always going to be a vertically downward pull from the center of mass toward the center of the earth.

____ 36. In athletics, a large base of support is always advantageous.

____ 37. Force is bidirectional and torque is unidirectional.

____ 38. Small forces imparted to the distal aspect of an extremity (i.e., ankle) create large torques to the proximal joints (i.e., hip).

____ 39. A torques greatest magnitude occurs when the direction of application is at a right angle or 90 to the segment or extremity.

____ 40. When the body or a body segment moves over a surface, friction also is a torque that affects movement.

Chapter 2: Mechanical Principles: Kinetics
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: A PTS: 1

2. ANS: D PTS: 1

3. ANS: A PTS: 1

4. ANS: D PTS: 1

5. ANS: D PTS: 1

6. ANS: D PTS: 1

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TRUE/FALSE

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Chapter 3: Muscle Physiology and Motor Control

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Under resting conditions when no action is occurring, the resting membrane potential is best described as:
a. negative
b. positive
c. neutralneither negative or positive
d. in a constant state of flux

____ 2. The entire process from afferent stimulation to motor response occurs within:
a. nanoseconds
b. microseconds
c. milliseconds
d. seconds

____ 3. Inhibitory synapses result in a ________________ of the postsynaptic membrane.
a. depolarization
b. repolarization
c. hypopolarization
d. hyperpolarization

____ 4. Upper motor neurons are best described as being located in:
a. the ventral horn gray matter
b. the ventral horn white matter
c. the cerebral cortex and spinal cord
d. only in the lateral and medial corticospinal tracts

____ 5. ________________ function as a neural bridge between the upper and lower motor neurons.
a. Alpha motor neurons
b. Interneurons
c. Gamma motor neurons
d. Afferent neurons

____ 6. Alpha motor neurons innervate:
a. extrafusal muscle fibers
b. intrafusal muscle fibers
c. muscle spindles
d. Golgi tendon organs

____ 7. Motor neurons receive synaptic connections from __________ of other neurons.
a. a couple
b. tens
c. hundreds
d. thousands

____ 8. The thin connective tissue surrounding the muscle is known as the:
a. endomysium
b. perimysium
c. epimysium
d. fasciculi

____ 9. A sarcomere lies between two:
a. A-bands
b. Z-discs
c. H-bands
d. I-bands

____ 10. Within a sarcomere, the H-band contains:
a. actin filaments
b. myosin filaments
c. both actin and myosin filaments
d. tropomyosin

____ 11. During a concentric contraction of a muscle fiber, the I-band:
a. becomes smaller
b. becomes larger
c. does not change
d. response is variable

____ 12. The arrival of a nerve impulse at the myoneural junction initially causes a release of _____________ from the presynaptic ending.
a. acetylcholine
b. calcium
c. cholinesterase
d. curare

____ 13. At rest, potential reactive sites on actin filaments are inhibited from coupling with myosin filaments due to:
a. acetylcholine
b. tropomyosin
c. troponin
d. calcium

____ 14. Type I muscle fibers are characterized as _________ twitch and _________ in appearance.
a. slow; light
b. fast; light
c. slow; dark
d. fast; dark

____ 15. Type II muscle fibers are ___________ in diameter and generate _________ force when compared with type I muscle fibers.
a. small; less
b. small; more
c. large; more
d. large; less

____ 16. To increase the amount of tension/force a muscle can generate:
a. It is advantageous to recruit solely the small motor units.
b. The body responds by recruiting a greater number of motor units.
c. The frequency of stimulation of individual motor units is decreased.
d. The body responds by recruiting a few number of motor units.

____ 17. Golgi tendon organs transmit __________ information via ______ fibers.
a. afferent; Ia
b. afferent; Ib
c. efferent; Ia
d. efferent; Ib

____ 18. _____________ is a syndrome dominated by sustained muscle contractions.
a. Atonia
b. Dystonia
c. Hypotonia
d. Hypertonia

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 19. Efferent receptors provide accurate and timely information about the status of each body part and the state of the environmental surroundings.

____ 20. Intracellular ions are predominantly negative inside the cell.

____ 21. When a cells membrane depolarizes, it becomes more negative.

____ 22. The peripheral nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.

____ 23. The cell body and axon of a lower motor neuron originate in the ventral horn of the spinal cord.

____ 24. Within the nervous system, white matter is associated with a high concentration of myelin.

____ 25. Actin filaments are thicker than myosin filaments.

____ 26. The sarcoplasmic reticulum runs perpendicular to the myofibril.

____ 27. Postural muscles contain a high proportion of type I muscle fibers.

____ 28. Muscles that are responsible for fine motor control exhibit small muscle to nerve fiber ratios.

____ 29. Golgi tendon organs are thought to provide information directly related to the position of a joint.

____ 30. Muscle spindles provide afferent information to the nervous system related to muscle length.

____ 31. Maintaining ones equilibrium is an exclusive function of the vestibular system.

____ 32. Muscle tone is influenced by both the intrinsic mechanical properties of the muscle as well as the level of excitability of the entire pool of motor neurons that control the respective muscle.

____ 33. Motor control utilizes the hierarchical contributions from many systems to orchestrate coordinated movement.

____ 34. Neural connections at the spinal cord level are associated with automatic control and rapid responses.

____ 35. After a lower motor neuron injury, hypertonicity is likely to be evident.

____ 36. In a neurologically intact adult, co-activation of muscle groups is infrequent, particularly when learning a new task.

Chapter 3: Muscle Physiology and Motor Control
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: A PTS: 1

2. ANS: C PTS: 1

3. ANS: D PTS: 1

4. ANS: C PTS: 1

5. ANS: B PTS: 1

6. ANS: A PTS: 1

7. ANS: D PTS: 1

8. ANS: C PTS: 1

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10. ANS: B PTS: 1

11. ANS: A PTS: 1

12. ANS: A PTS: 1

13. ANS: C PTS: 1

14. ANS: C PTS: 1

15. ANS: C PTS: 1

16. ANS: B PTS: 1

17. ANS: B PTS: 1

18. ANS: B PTS: 1

TRUE/FALSE

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20. ANS: T PTS: 1

21. ANS: F PTS: 1

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36. ANS: F PTS: 1
Chapter 4: Muscle Activity and Strength

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A shortening contraction of a muscle is synonymous with a(n) _____________ contraction.
a. concentric
b. isometric
c. eccentric
d. isotonic

____ 2. From a physiological perspective, this type of muscle contraction is the most efficient (uses the least amount of energy):
a. concentric
b. isometric
c. eccentric
d. isotonic

____ 3. Which of the following is associated with an eccentric contraction?
a. Decreased width of the A band
b. The force generated by the muscle is less than the external load.
c. The force generated by the muscle is greater than the external load.
d. Positive work

____ 4. Isokinetic devices provide ______________ resistance throughout the range of motion thereby promoting ______________ output of the exercising muscle group.
a. increasing; maximal
b. decreasing; minimal
c. accommodating; maximal
d. accommodating; minimal

____ 5. With a bi-articular muscle, if neither the proximal or distal end is fixed during a contraction of the respective muscle:
a. motion will occur at the proximal joint only
b. motion will occur at the distal joint only
c. motion will occur at both the proximal and distal joints
d. no motion will occur

____ 6. The _____________ assist the prime movers to produce motion about a joint.
a. agonists
b. synergists
c. antagonists
d. protagonists

____ 7. Which of the following muscles when considered collectively are most representative of those with a high percentage of type IIb fibers?
a. soleus, hamstrings, quadriceps
b. hamstrings, quadriceps, short cervical flexors
c. quadriceps, gastrocnemius, upper extremity flexors
d. gastrocnemius, upper extremity flexors, erector spinae group

____ 8. As it relates to connective tissue, all of the following are correct except:
a. Stiffness of a tissue can be defined as the amount of force required to create a change in length or displacement.
b. The initial section of the stress-strain curve is referred to as the toe region.
c. If a tissue is stretched into the plastic region, upon release of the force which is causing the deformation, the tissue will return to its original resting length.
d. In a resting state, connective tissue has a wavy or crimped appearance.

____ 9. Creep is best described as the change in length of a tissue in response to a ___________ load over a ____________ period of time.
a. constant; prolonged
b. constant; short
c. variable; prolonged
d. variable; short

____ 10. Given the following arrangement, which muscle orientation would you expect to be able to produce the greatest amount of force? Muscle fibers arranged in ______________ that are architecturally classified as ___________ in shape.
a. series; pennate
b. series; fusiform
c. parallel; pennate
d. parallel; fusiform

____ 11. Collectively, the endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium form a muscles ____________ elastic component.
a. series
b. parallel
c. active
d. resisted

____ 12. All of the following statements related to muscle length and tension are true except:
a. The resting length of a muscle is a position of the muscle where there is no tension within the muscle.
b. At a muscles resting length, a maximal number of actin and myosin cross-bridges are capable of forming.
c. Active tension is responsible for muscle tension during shortening.
d. Passive tension declines as the muscle shortens because there are fewer crossbridges available between actin and myosin fibers.

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 13. Isokinetic devices operate at a set speed.

____ 14. Postural muscles have a high percentage of type IIb muscle fibers.

____ 15. Very rigid structures are more elastic and less viscous.

____ 16. All biological materials can be considered viscoelastic.

____ 17. As it relates to muscle characteristics, the term stress is synonymous with force.

____ 18. A stress-strain curve takes into consideration time as an influencing factor.

____ 19. The cross-sectional area of a muscle is related to the maximal amount of force it is capable of producing.

____ 20. The perpendicular distance from a muscles insertion to the axis of rotation remains constant throughout a joints range of motion.

____ 21. The thicker the size of an axon, the more excitable it is.

____ 22. In an open kinematic chain, to optimally function distally, multijoint agonists rely on their antagonists to provide stabilization at proximal joints.

____ 23. For a given force, a greater number of motor units are recruited during an eccentric contraction when compared with a concentric contraction.

____ 24. A muscles action and its orientation related to gravity will determine whether a muscle contracts in a concentric or eccentric fashion.

____ 25. In a rehabilitation setting, enhancing joint stability can be facilitated by performing exercise in a closed kinematic chain.

____ 26. For maximum tension and hence torque generation across a joint, some muscles are more reliant on muscle length, whereas other muscles are more dependent on the perpendicular distance from the tendon insertion to the axis of rotation.

Chapter 4: Muscle Activity and Strength
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: A PTS: 1

2. ANS: C PTS: 1

3. ANS: B PTS: 1

4. ANS: C PTS: 1

5. ANS: C PTS: 1

6. ANS: B PTS: 1

7. ANS: D PTS: 1

8. ANS: C PTS: 1

9. ANS: A PTS: 1

10. ANS: C PTS: 1

11. ANS: B PTS: 1

12. ANS: D PTS: 1

TRUE/FALSE

13. ANS: T PTS: 1

14. ANS: F PTS: 1

15. ANS: F PTS: 1

16. ANS: T PTS: 1

17. ANS: T PTS: 1

18. ANS: F PTS: 1

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26. ANS: T PTS: 1
Chapter 5: Shoulder Complex

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The primary purpose of the shoulder complex is to:
a. lift and push objects
b. assist with forced inspirations and expirations
c. place the hand in position for function
d. elevate the body

____ 2. The shoulder complex as a whole primarily relies on ___________ for stability.
a. bony geometry
b. active and passive restraints
c. negative intra-articular pressure
d. external load-compression of articular surfaces

____ 3. The shoulder complex is attached to the axioskeleton at which joint?
a. Acromioclavicular
b. Glenohumeral
c. Scapulothoracic
d. Sternoclavicular

____ 4. The glenoid labrum adds approximately _____ % more surface area to the depth and curve of the glenoid fossa.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100

____ 5. Relative to the distal humeral condyles, the humeral head is rotated _________ in the ___________ plane.
a. anterior; sagittal
b. anterior; transverse
c. posterior; sagittal
d. posterior; transverse

____ 6. Motion at the scapulothoracic joint is a result of combined motion from which joint(s)?
a. Acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular
b. Sternoclavicular and glenohumeral
c. Glenohumeral and acromioclavicular
d. Only the acromioclavicular

____ 7. Medial and lateral tilting of the scapula occurs about a(n) _________ axis.
a. anterior-posterior
b. medial-lateral
c. superior-inferior
d. coronal

____ 8. As the arm is elevated in the scapular plane (particularly during higher angles of elevation), which combination of tilts at the scapula occur?
a. Anterior and medial
b. Anterior and lateral
c. Posterior and medial
d. Posterior and lateral

____ 9. Which motions of the scapula occur when an individual places his or her upper extremity behind his or her back (functional medial rotation)?
a. Anterior and medial tilt
b. Posterior and medial tilt
c. Anterior and lateral tilt
d. Posterior and lateral tilt

____ 10. How many degree(s) of angular freedom are present at the sternoclavicular joint?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

____ 11. During protraction at the sternoclavicular joint, the ___________ clavicle glides ____________ on the sternum.
a. concave; anterior
b. convex; anterior
c. concave; posterior
d. convex; posterior

____ 12. Tension in this ligament facilitates posterior rotation of the clavicle during elevation of the upper extremity:
a. acromioclavicular
b. coracoclavicular
c. coracoacromial
d. coracohumeral

____ 13. The sternoclavicular joint is classified as a _______________ joint.
a. ball and socket
b. gliding
c. sellar
d. pivot

____ 14. Elevation at the sternoclavicular joint takes place between:
a. the sternal end of the clavicle and articular disc
b. the articular disc and the sternum (manubrium)
c. both the sternal end of clavicle and articular disc and between the disc and sternum
d. the acromial end of the clavicle and the acromion

____ 15. The acromioclavicular joint is classified as a ___________ joint.
a. ball and socket
b. gliding
c. sellar
d. pivot

____ 16. The acromioclavicular joint is thought to contribute approximately _________ to upward rotation of the scapula.
a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120

____ 17. The scapulothoracic joint is classified as a _____________ joint.
a. synovial
b. syndesmosis
c. amphiarthrosis
d. pseudo

____ 18. Protraction of the sternoclavicular joint occurs in the _____________ plane.
a. sagittal
b. frontal
c. coronal
d. transverse

____ 19. Upward rotation of the scapula occurs primarily about a(n) ____________ axis.
a. anterior-posterior
b. medial-lateral
c. superior-inferior
d. vertical

____ 20. On average during elevation of the arm, a ____ ratio of glenohumeral to scapular motion exists.
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 2:2
d. 1:3

____ 21. The glenohumeral joint is classified as a ___________ joint.
a. ball and socket
b. gliding
c. sellar
d. pivot

____ 22. The humeral head is approximately _____ times the size of the glenoid fossa.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

____ 23. Which ligament is primarily responsible to resist gravitys downward pull on the humeral head with the arm in the resting position?
a. Coracoacromial
b. Coracoclavicular
c. Coracohumeral
d. Middle glenohumeral

____ 24. The tendon of the long head of the biceps is considered to be:
a. intra-articular and intrasynovial
b. intra-articular and extrasynovial
c. extra-articular and intrasynovial
d. extra-articular and extrasynovial

____ 25. A strong contraction of the biceps with the elbow flexed and shoulder abducted to 90, promotes _________ and prevents _________ translation of the glenohumeral joint.
a. compression; superior
b. compression; inferior
c. distraction; superior
d. distraction; inferior

____ 26. Which of the following is a structural cause of subacromial impingement syndrome?
a. Muscle imbalances
b. Muscle fatigue
c. Poor posture
d. Hooked or angled acromion

____ 27. The anterior capsule of the glenohumeral joint becomes taut with extreme ___________ and ___________.
a. lateral rotation; flexion
b. lateral rotation; extension
c. medial rotation; flexion
d. medial rotation; extension

____ 28. The normal limitation or end feel for all motions of the glenohumeral joint is:
a. firm
b. bone to bone
c. soft tissue approximation
d. springy

____ 29. During lateral rotation of the glenohumeral joint, the humerus rolls _________ and glides or slides __________.
a. anterior; anterior
b. anterior; posterior
c. posterior; anterior
d. posterior; posterior

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 30. The glenoid fossas alignment is tipped a few degrees inferior relative to the scapulas vertebral border.

____ 31. Anterior tilting of the scapula occurs when the superior border of the scapula tilts forward with its inferior angle moving away from the thorax.

____ 32. The majority of clavicular elevation occurs in the second 90 of humeral elevation.

____ 33. With the upper extremities in a closed kinetic chain, depression of the scapula will cause elevation of the trunk and body.

____ 34. During scapular elevation, small adjustments at the acromioclavicular joint allow the vertebral border of the scapula to remain essentially vertical in alignment.

____ 35. During abduction, the humerus must rotate medially so the greater tuberosity can clear the acromion.

____ 36. Lateral rotation of the glenohumeral joint is greater at 90 of abduction compared with when the arm is at 0 of abduction (resting by the side).

____ 37. The resting or loose packed position of the glenohumeral joint is full abduction and lateral rotation.

____ 38. During upward rotation of the scapula, the axis of rotation of the scapula migrates laterally.

____ 39. As the upper extremity progresses to higher levels of elevation, the moment arm for the lower trapezius to upwardly rotate the scapula becomes larger.

____ 40. The deltoid muscle is essential to fully abduct the arm.

Chapter 5: Shoulder Complex
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: C PTS: 1

2. ANS: B PTS: 1

3. ANS: D PTS: 1

4. ANS: B PTS: 1

5. ANS: D PTS: 1

6. ANS: A PTS: 1

7. ANS: C PTS: 1

8. ANS: D PTS: 1

9. ANS: A PTS: 1

10. ANS: C PTS: 1

11. ANS: A PTS: 1

12. ANS: B PTS: 1

13. ANS: C PTS: 1

14. ANS: A PTS: 1

15. ANS: B PTS: 1

16. ANS: A PTS: 1

17. ANS: D PTS: 1

18. ANS: D PTS: 1

19. ANS: A PTS: 1

20. ANS: B PTS: 1

21. ANS: A PTS: 1

22. ANS: A PTS: 1

23. ANS: C PTS: 1

24. ANS: B PTS: 1

25. ANS: A PTS: 1

26. ANS: D PTS: 1

27. ANS: B PTS: 1

28. ANS: A PTS: 1

29. ANS: C PTS: 1

TRUE/FALSE

30. ANS: F PTS: 1

31. ANS: T PTS: 1

32. ANS: F PTS: 1

33. ANS: T PTS: 1

34. ANS: T PTS: 1

35. ANS: F PTS: 1

36. ANS: T PTS: 1

37. ANS: F PTS: 1

38. ANS: T PTS: 1

39. ANS: T PTS: 1

40. ANS: F PTS: 1
Chapter 6: Elbow and Forearm Complex

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The elbow complex consists of ______ joint(s) and is surrounded by ________ capsule(s).
a. two; one
b. three; one
c. two; two
d. three; two

____ 2. Most of the motion at the elbow comes from this joint:
a. proximal radioulnar
b. distal radioulnar
c. humeroradial
d. humeroulnar

____ 3. Classically the elbow is considered to have ______ degree(s) of freedom.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

____ 4. Motion at the elbow takes place primarily in the _______ plane about a(n) _______ axis.
a. sagittal; medial-lateral
b. sagittal; anterior-posterior
c. frontal; medial-lateral
d. frontal; anterior-posterior

____ 5. The elbow relies mainly on this for stability:
a. active restraints
b. passive restraints
c. bony geometry
d. negative intra-articular pressure

____ 6. On average, there is _________ of motion (extension to flexion) at the elbow.
a. 80
b. 105
c. 120
d. 145

____ 7. The normal end feel for elbow extension range of motion is:
a. firm
b. soft tissue approximation
c. bone to bone
d. springy

____ 8. In very thin individuals it is possible the end feel for elbow flexion to be bone to bone due to the ____________ process articulating with the ____________ fossa.
a. coronoid; coronoid
b. coronoid; olecranon
c. olecranon; olecranon
d. olecranon; coronoid

____ 9. The closed pack position of the proximal radioulnar joint is:
a. full flexion
b. full extension
c. mid-flexion with neutral supination-pronation
d. either full supination or pronation

____ 10. Full elbow flexion necessitates that all of the following tissues have normal length/mobility except the:
a. posterior capsule
b. anterior fibers of the medial collateral ligament
c. ulnar nerve
d. one joint elbow extensors

____ 11. During open kinetic chain elbow extension, the ________ radial head moves _________ on the capitulum.
a. concave; anteriorly
b. concave; posteriorly
c. convex; anteriorly
d. convex; posteriorly

____ 12. During closed kinetic chain elbow flexion, the capitulum rolls __________ and glides ___________.
a. anterior; anterior
b. anterior; posterior
c. posterior; anterior
d. posterior; posterior

____ 13. In the humeroradial resting position, the radial head is located:
a. anterior to the capitulum
b. posterior to the capitulum
c. medial to the capitulum
d. in full contact with the capitulum

____ 14. The carrying angle is most pronounced with the glenohumeral joint ___________ rotated and forearm _____________.
a. medially; pronated
b. medially; supinated
c. laterally; pronated
d. laterally; supinated

____ 15. The medial collateral ligament of the elbow provides stabilization in the ________ plane.
a. sagittal
b. frontal
c. transverse
d. horizontal

____ 16. Supination and pronation occur in the ___________ plane about a(n) _________ axis.
a. sagittal; medial-lateral
b. frontal; anterior-posterior
c. transverse; superior-inferior
d. coronal; anterior-posterior

____ 17. The normal end feel for supination range of motion is:
a. firm
b. bone to bone
c. soft tissue approximation
d. springy

____ 18. What type of joint is the proximal radioulnar joint is classified as?
a. Ginglymus
b. Trochoid
c. Condyloid
d. Pivot

____ 19. During open kinetic chain supination at the distal radioulnar joint, the radius rolls ________ and slides ________.
a. anterior; anterior
b. anterior; posterior
c. posterior; posterior
d. posterior; anterior

____ 20. The radioulnar joints primarily rely on _________ for stability?
a. bony geometry
b. active and passive soft tissue restraints
c. negative intra-articular pressure
d. load creating compression and hence stability of joints

____ 21. The interosseous membrane between the radius and ulna serves to perform all of the following functions except:
a. transmit forces from the radius to the ulna
b. transmit forces from the ulna to the radius
c. serve as an attachment site for local musculature
d. increase stability of the radioulnar joints

____ 22. The undersurface of the annular ligament is lined with?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Fibrocartilage
c. Elastic cartilage
d. Calcified cartilage

____ 23. The quadrate ligament provides stability at which joint?
a. Humeroulnar
b. Humeroradial
c. Proximal radioulnar
d. Distal radioulnar

____ 24. The oblique cord becomes taut with:
a. elbow flexion
b. elbow extension
c. forearm pronation
d. forearm supination

____ 25. Of the following, which muscle is capable of producing elbow flexion?
a. Long head of the triceps
b. Pronator teres
c. Pronator quadratus
d. Anconeus

____ 26. The elbow flexor group is innervated by each of the following peripheral nerves except by the __________ nerve
a. median
b. ulnar
c. radial
d. musculocutaneous

____ 27. Which elbow flexor muscle is unaffected by forearm and shoulder position?
a. Biceps brachii, short head
b. Biceps brachii, long head
c. Brachioradialis
d. Brachialis

____ 28. Of the following, which elbow flexor is recruited in all tasks requiring elbow flexion?
a. Biceps brachii, short head
b. Biceps brachii, long head
c. Brachioradialis
d. Brachialis

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 29. Because the trochlea is located more distal than the capitulum, a valgus carrying angle is created.

____ 30. In the anatomical position, the elbow joint axis is strictly aligned with the coronal plane.

____ 31. Compared with the shoulder and wrist, the accessory motions at the elbow are substantial.

____ 32. A gunstock deformity is associated with cubital varus.

____ 33. The carrying angle increases when moving from elbow extension to flexion.

____ 34. The majority of supination and pronation occurs at the distal radioulnar joint.

____ 35. The supinator muscle is thought to act in isolation to perform slow supination tasks near elbow extension.

____ 36. When an individual makes a tight fist, the biceps and triceps act to stabilize the elbow.

____ 37. During most functional motions, bi-articular muscles become active insufficient.

____ 38. Regardless of angle, the supinator is capable of producing more supination torque than the biceps brachii.

____ 39. The pronator teres contributes more to pronation torque compared with the pronator quadrates.

____ 40. Typically, the anconeus initiates elbow extension.

Chapter 6: Elbow and Forearm Complex
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B PTS: 1

2. ANS: D PTS: 1

3. ANS: A PTS: 1

4. ANS: A PTS: 1

5. ANS: C PTS: 1

6. ANS: D PTS: 1

7. ANS: C PTS: 1

8. ANS: A PTS: 1

9. ANS: D PTS: 1

10. ANS: B PTS: 1

11. ANS: A PTS: 1

12. ANS: B PTS: 1

13. ANS: B PTS: 1

14. ANS: D PTS: 1

15. ANS: B PTS: 1

16. ANS: C PTS: 1

17. ANS: A PTS: 1

18. ANS: D PTS: 1

19. ANS: C PTS: 1

20. ANS: B PTS: 1

21. ANS: B PTS: 1

22. ANS: A PTS: 1

23. ANS: C PTS: 1

24. ANS: D PTS: 1

25. ANS: B PTS: 1

26. ANS: B PTS: 1

27. ANS: D PTS: 1

28. ANS: D PTS: 1

TRUE/FALSE

29. ANS: T PTS: 1

30. ANS: F PTS: 1

31. ANS: F PTS: 1

32. ANS: T PTS: 1

33. ANS: F PTS: 1

34. ANS: F PTS: 1

35. ANS: T PTS: 1

36. ANS: T PTS: 1

37. ANS: F PTS: 1

38. ANS: F PTS: 1

39. ANS: T PTS: 1

40. ANS: T PTS: 1
Chapter 7: Wrist and Hand

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The primary bone of the wrist is the:
a. radius
b. ulna
c. scaphoid
d. lunate

____ 2. Listers tubercle provides a pulley for the:
a. flexor pollicis longus
b. flexor pollicis brevis
c. extensor pollicis longus
d. extensor pollicis brevis

____ 3. The axis for radial and ulnar deviation passes through this carpal bone:
a. scaphoid
b. lunate
c. hamate
d. capitates

____ 4. Which carpal bone is most commonly fractured?
a. Scaphoid
b. Lunate
c. Hamate
d. Capitates

____ 5. Blood supply to the scaphoid proceeds primarily in a ___________ fashion.
a. proximal to distal
b. distal to proximal
c. lateral to medial
d. medial to lateral

____ 6. Which carpal bone is most commonly dislocated?
a. Scaphoid
b. Lunate
c. Hamate
d. Capitates

____ 7. The wrist is often classified as a __________ joint.
a. ginglymus
b. plane or gliding
c. condyloid
d. elliptical

____ 8. The wrist has _______ degree(s) of angular freedom.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

____ 9. During open kinetic chain wrist extension, the proximal row of carpal bones roll ___________ and glide ___________.
a. volarly; volarly
b. dorsally; volarly
c. volarly; dorsally
d. dorsally; dorsally

____ 10. During closed kinetic chain wrist extension, the distal radius rolls ___________ and glides ____________.
a. volarly; volarly
b. dorsally; volarly
c. volarly; dorsally
d. dorsally; dorsally

____ 11. The palm of the hand has a concave appearance because:
a. the flexor muscles are stronger than the extensors
b. the extensor muscles are stronger than the flexors
c. of the arches formed by the carpal bones and ligaments
d. of the tightness of the superficial fascia on the volar aspect of the hand

____ 12. The __________ carpometacarpal (CMC) joint has the least amount of motion in the sagittal plane
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth

____ 13. The first CMC joint of the thumb is considered to be a(n) _______ joint.
a. ball and socket
b. saddle
c. condyloid
d. ellipsoid

____ 14. During abduction of the first CMC joint, the first metacarpal rolls _______ and glides _______ on the trapezium.
a. volarly; volarly
b. dorsally; volarly
c. volarly; dorsally
d. dorsally; dorsally

____ 15. The metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints (25) possess ______ degree(s) of angular freedom.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

____ 16. MCP joint motion (25) includes:
a. flexion/extension and medial/lateral rotation
b. medial/lateral rotation and abduction/adduction
c. abduction/adduction and flexion/extension
d. flexion/extension and opposition

____ 17. Approximately ____% of the metacarpal heads are covered with articular cartilage.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100

____ 18. The interphalangeal (IP) joints of the hand possess ______ degree(s) of angular freedom.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

____ 19. To stretch the oblique retinacular ligament, the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint should be ________, whereas the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint is either actively or passively __________.
a. flexed; flexed
b. flexed; extended
c. extended; flexed
d. extended; extended

____ 20. Because there are no ligaments between these two carpal bones, a substantial amount of motion exists:
a. scaphoid and lunate
b. lunate and capitate
c. capitate and scaphoid
d. lunate and triquetrum

____ 21. The fibrocartilaginous disc, which is part of the triangular fibrocartilage complex of the wrist, is located between the:
a. radius and ulna
b. radius and proximal row of carpal bones
c. ulna and proximal row of carpal bones
d. proximal and distal rows of carpal bones

____ 22. How many tendons pass through the carpal tunnel?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9

____ 23. When the elbow is flexed a minimum of 15, the wrist extensors are situated _______________ to the elbow axis and therefore are capable of _____________ the elbow.
a. anterior; flexing
b. posterior; flexing
c. anterior; extending
d. posterior; extending

____ 24. The extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris work as ______________ to perform ulnar deviation.
a. agonists
b. antagonists
c. synergists
d. These muscles do not ulnarly deviate the wrist.

____ 25. In the frontal plane, the abductor pollicis longus is __________ to the axis of rotation and therefore is capable of assisting with ________________.
a. medial; radial deviation
b. medial; ulnar deviation
c. lateral; radial deviation
d. lateral; ulnar deviation

____ 26. Which muscle flexes the IP joint of the thumb?
a. Flexor pollicis brevis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Flexor digitorum superficialis
d. Flexor digitorum profundus

____ 27. The lumbricals function to ______________ the MCP joints and ____________ the PIP joints.
a. flex; flex
b. flex; extend
c. extend; flex
d. extend; extend

____ 28. Mallet finger results from disruption of the ___________ tendon at the _________ joint.
a. extensor communis; DIP
b. extensor communis; PIP
c. flexor digitorum profundus; DIP
d. flexor digitorum profundus; PIP

____ 29. The normal end feel for radial deviation or abduction is:
a. firm-capsular
b. empty
c. soft tissue approximation
d. hard-bony

____ 30. The most stable position of the wrist is full:
a. radial deviation
b. ulnar deviation
c. extension
d. flexion

____ 31. The PIP joints exhibit approximately __________ of motion.
a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120

____ 32. Patients with C6 tetraplegia grasp objects:
a. by actively flexing their digits
b. by actively extending their wrists
c. particularly well if they have their wrist flexors stretched regularly
d. are unable to grasp objects

____ 33. Which type of grip is most commonly used when picking up and holding objects for use?
a. Three prong chuck
b. Tip prehension
c. Lateral prehension
d. Power grip

____ 34. Which type of grip is recommended to pick up objects for patients with upper motor neuron lesions to minimize the likelihood of spasticity?
a. Three prong chuck
b. Tip prehension
c. Lateral prehension
d. Power grip

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 35. The first two digits provide the hand with gross or strength manipulation.

____ 36. The hand has multiple functions including prehension, providing afferent information to the CNS as well as assisting in expression and nonverbal communication.

____ 37. The radius is in direct contact with the carpal bones.

____ 38. The ulna is in direct contact with the carpal bones.

____ 39. The loose packed position of the MCP joints is 90 of flexion.

____ 40. The extensor digitorum participates in wrist extension only when the fingers are simultaneously extended.

____ 41. The cruciate pulleys prevent bowstringing of the long finger flexors.

____ 42. All power grips incorporate use of the thumb.

____ 43. In precision grips, the thumb is typically abducted and positioned to oppose the fingers.

____ 44. The wrist extensors play a vital role in stabilizing the wrist when an individual makes a fist.

____ 45. As it relates to flexion of the MCP joints, the internal moment arm of the palmar interossei is greater than that of the lumbricals.

____ 46. The intrinsic muscles of the hand actively function to perform light or easy closure of the fingers.

____ 47. Abduction at the MCP joints naturally occurs when the hand is rapidly opened, fingers fully extended.

Chapter 7: Wrist and Hand
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: A PTS: 1

2. ANS: C PTS: 1

3. ANS: D PTS: 1

4. ANS: A PTS: 1

5. ANS: B PTS: 1

6. ANS: B PTS: 1

7. ANS: C PTS: 1

8. ANS: B PTS: 1

9. ANS: B PTS: 1

10. ANS: D PTS: 1

11. ANS: C PTS: 1

12. ANS: C PTS: 1

13. ANS: B PTS: 1

14. ANS: C PTS: 1

15. ANS: B PTS: 1

16. ANS: C PTS: 1

17. ANS: C PTS: 1

18. ANS: A PTS: 1

19. ANS: C PTS: 1

20. ANS: B PTS: 1

21. ANS: C PTS: 1

22. ANS: D PTS: 1

23. ANS: A PTS: 1

24. ANS: C PTS: 1

25. ANS: C PTS: 1

26. ANS: B PTS: 1

27. ANS: B PTS: 1

28. ANS: A PTS: 1

29. ANS: D PTS: 1

30. ANS: C PTS: 1

31. ANS: D PTS: 1

32. ANS: B PTS: 1

33. ANS: A PTS: 1

34. ANS: C PTS: 1

TRUE/FALSE

35. ANS: F PTS: 1

36. ANS: T PTS: 1

37. ANS: T PTS: 1

38. ANS: F PTS: 1

39. ANS: F PTS: 1

40. ANS: T PTS: 1

41. ANS: T PTS: 1

42. ANS: F PTS: 1

43. ANS: T PTS: 1

44. ANS: T PTS: 1

45. ANS: F PTS: 1

46. ANS: F PTS: 1

47. ANS: T PTS: 1
Chapter 8: Head, Neck and Trunk

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. This ligament is broader in the cervical spine and narrower in the lumbar spine:
a. anterior longitudinal ligament
b. posterior longitudinal ligament
c. interspinous ligament
d. intertransverse ligament
e. supraspinous ligament

____ 2. The interspinous and supraspinous ligaments are ideally positioned to resist ______________ of the spine.
a. forward flexion
b. extension
c. sidebending
d. rotation

____ 3. The primary motion available at the atlanto-axial joint is:
a. forward flexion
b. extension
c. sidebending
d. rotation

____ 4. Motion at the atlanto-occipital joint primarily occurs in the ____________ plane.
a. frontal
b. transverse
c. sagittal
d. coronal

____ 5. The facet joints of C3 through C7 are oriented at a __________ angle between horizontal and frontal planes.
a. 0
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60
e. 90

____ 6. Which of the following ligaments restricts extension range of motion of the spine?
a. posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL)
b. anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL)
c. interspinous ligament
d. intertransverse ligament
e. supraspinous ligament

____ 7. The ligamentum nuchae in the cervical spine is an extension of which ligament?
a. PLL
b. ALL
c. Interspinous ligament
d. Intertransverse ligament
e. Supraspinous ligament

____ 8. Which of the following ligaments restricts sidebending or lateral flexion of the spine?
a. PLL
b. ALL
c. Interspinous ligament
d. Intertransverse ligament
e. Supraspinous ligament

____ 9. The closed packed position of the facet joints is full:
a. flexion
b. extension
c. sidebending
d. rotation

____ 10. Motion at the atlanto-occipital joint primarily takes place in the ________ plane.
a. frontal
b. transverse
c. sagittal
d. coronal

____ 11. Motion at the axialatlanto joint primarily takes place in the _________ plane.
a. frontal
b. transverse
c. sagittal
d. coronal

____ 12. The facet joints of the lumbar spine (L14) are predominately located in the
_________ plane.
a. frontal
b. transverse
c. sagittal
d. coronal

____ 13. Under normal, nonpathological conditions, how much of the load do the intervertebral joints bear?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
e. 100%

____ 14. During spinal rotation to the right (C5 on C6), the right inferior articulating facet of C5 moves:
a. anterior and superior
b. anterior and inferior
c. posterior and superior
d. posterior and inferior

____ 15. Overall, which region of the spine has the most mobility?
a. Craniocervical
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral

____ 16. In which position would you expect the lumbar disk pressure to be greatest?
a. Lying down
b. Standing in slight trunk flexion
c. Standing
d. Slouched sitting while holding a 10-pound weight in each hand

____ 17. Protraction of the cervical spine (a forward head) results in what combination of motion?
a. Flexion of the lower and upper cervical spines
b. Flexion of the lower and extension of the upper cervical spine
c. Extension of the lower and upper cervical spines
d. Extension of the lower and flexion of the upper cervical spines

____ 18. The spinous process of T7 is at the level of the _______________.
a. superior angle of the scapula
b. root of the spine of the scapula
c. inferior angle of the scapula
d. acromion process

____ 19. In the mid-thoracic spine, the spinous processes are oriented primarily in a(n) __________ direction.
a. anterior
b. horizontal
c. lateral
d. inferior

____ 20. The sacroiliac joint is located most closely to which anatomical landmark?
a. Anterior superior iliac spine
b. Posterior superior iliac spine
c. Anterior inferior iliac spine
d. Posterior inferior iliac spine

____ 21. The intervertebral discs account for ________ of the length of the vertebral column.
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 40%
d. 55%

____ 22. Spondylolisthesis is most likely to occur at ____________.
a. C12
b. C7T1
c. T12L1
d. L5S1

____ 23. Paired contraction of spinal muscles that are posterior to the axis of rotation will cause:
a. flexion
b. extension
c. sidebending
d. rotation

____ 24. In addition to serving as a flexor of the cervical spine, this muscle also has a substantial number of muscle spindles suggesting a proprioceptive role.
a. Rectus capitis anterior
b. Rectus capitis lateralis
c. Longus capitis
d. Longus colli

____ 25. Unilateral contraction of the left sternocleidomastoid muscle causes _________ rotation and _________ sidebending.
a. right; left
b. right; right
c. left; right
d. left; left

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 26. Normal opening of the mouth allows an individual to place the width of four fingers between the teeth.

____ 27. When an individual bends forward the spinous processes become approximated.

____ 28. The anterior vertebral structures are primarily responsible for bearing weight.

____ 29. The articular surfaces of C1 and C2 are oriented vertically.

____ 30. Given the orientation of the facet joints between C3 and C7, rotation and sidebending occur together.

____ 31. One of the primary responsibilities of the facet joints is to guide motion.

____ 32. In full spinal extension, the facet joint capsule is maximally taut.

____ 33. The facet joints are classified as amphiarthrodial joints.

____ 34. The height of the intervertebral disc is greatest in the lumbar spine.

____ 35. Elevation of the lower ribs increases the anterior-posterior diameter of the rib cage.

____ 36. Nutation occurs when the promontory on the base of the sacrum moves inferiorly and anteriorly while the distal aspect of the sacrum and the coccyx move posteriorly.

____ 37. Thoracic outlet syndrome is characterized by compression of the neurovascular structures between the anterior and middle scalene muscles.

____ 38. Of the three muscles that comprise the erector spinae, the spinales has the greatest lever arm and hence mechanical advantage for causing lateral spinal flexion (sidebending).

____ 39. Deep fibers of the multifidus function to promote compression and stability of the spinal segments they cross.

____ 40. Impairment of the transversus abdominis and multifidus has been associated with individual suffering from low back pain.

____ 41. During initial opening of the mouth, translation of the mandibular condyles precedes rotation.

Chapter 8: Head, Neck and Trunk
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B PTS: 1

2. ANS: A PTS: 1

3. ANS: D PTS: 1

4. ANS: C PTS: 1

5. ANS: C PTS: 1

6. ANS: B PTS: 1

7. ANS: E PTS: 1

8. ANS: D PTS: 1

9. ANS: B PTS: 1

10. ANS: C PTS: 1

11. ANS: B PTS: 1

12. ANS: C PTS: 1

13. ANS: A PTS: 1

14. ANS: D PTS: 1

15. ANS: A PTS: 1

16. ANS: D PTS: 1

17. ANS: B PTS: 1

18. ANS: C PTS: 1

19. ANS: D PTS: 1

20. ANS: B PTS: 1

21. ANS: B PTS: 1

22. ANS: D PTS: 1

23. ANS: B PTS: 1

24. ANS: D PTS: 1

25. ANS: A PTS: 1

TRUE/FALSE

26. ANS: F PTS: 1

27. ANS: F PTS: 1

28. ANS: T PTS: 1

29. ANS: F PTS: 1

30. ANS: T PTS: 1

31. ANS: T PTS: 1

32. ANS: F PTS: 1

33. ANS: F PTS: 1

34. ANS: T PTS: 1

35. ANS: F PTS: 1

36. ANS: T PTS: 1

37. ANS: T PTS: 1

38. ANS: F PTS: 1

39. ANS: T PTS: 1

40. ANS: T PTS: 1

41. ANS: F PTS: 1
Chapter 9: Pelvis and Hip

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The primary responsibility of the pelvic and hip region is _________ during ________ chain motions.
a. mobility; open
b. mobility; closed
c. power production; open
d. power production; closed

____ 2. Each innominate is composed of how many bones?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

____ 3. The bones of the innominate come together at the ________.
a. iliac crest
b. pubic symphysis
c. acetabulum
d. ischial tuberosity

____ 4. The posterior landmark for the sacroiliac joint is the________.
a. anterior superior iliac spine
b. posterior superior iliac spine
c. posterior inferior iliac spine
d. anterior inferior iliac spine

____ 5. In normal adults, the greater trochanter is situated _______ compared with the center of the femoral head.
a. superior
b. at the same level
c. inferior
d. medially

____ 6. In part, the femur is able to withstand greater loads because of its _______________.
a. anterior convexity
b. anterior concavity
c. posterior convexity
d. length

____ 7. The angle of inclination is a _________ plane angle that normally measures _____ in the adult.
a. transverse; 150
b. frontal; 150
c. transverse; 125
d. frontal; 125

____ 8. A combination of these two abnormalities predispose the hip joint to instability:
a. coxa vara; anteversion
b. coxa vara; retroversion
c. coxa valga; anteversion
d. coxa valga; retroversion

____ 9. Individuals with an increased angle of torsion also known as ________ clinically present with __________ during gait.
a. anteversion; in-toeing
b. anteversion; out-toeing
c. retroversion; in-toeing
d. retroversion; out-toeing

____ 10. A ___________ center edge angle and ___________ acetabular anteversion angle are associated with lesser containment of the femoral head.
a. larger; larger
b. larger; smaller
c. smaller; smaller
d. smaller; larger

____ 11. There are ____ degrees of angular freedom at the hip joint.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

____ 12. The articulating surfaces of the pubic bones at the symphysis pubis are lined with what type of cartilage?
a. Hyaline
b. Fibro
c. Elastic
d. Calcified

____ 13. The pubic symphysis is classified as what type of joint?
a. Synovial
b. Diarthrodial
c. Amphiarthrodial
d. Synarthrosis

____ 14. Which aspect of the acetabulum is not an articulating surface?
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Superior
d. Inferior

____ 15. Frontal plane motion of the pelvis on the femur is best described as:
a. flexion-extension
b. anterior-posterior tilting
c. abduction-adduction
d. lateral tilting

____ 16. An anterior tilt of the pelvis results in _______ of the lumbar spine and ________ of the hip joint.
a. flexion; flexion
b. extension; flexion
c. flexion; extension
d. extension; extension

____ 17. A posterior tilt of the pelvis is created by a force couple of which two muscles?
a. Iliopsoas; abdominals
b. Abdominals; gluteus maximus
c. Iliopsoas; gluteus maximus
d. Erector spinae; iliopsoas

____ 18. In standing, forward rotation of the pelvis produces ________ of the weight-bearing hip.
a. flexion
b. extension
c. medial rotation
d. lateral rotation

____ 19. Between the ages of 70 and 92, the largest decline in hip range of motion is noted with:
a. extension
b. medial rotation
c. lateral rotation
d. abduction

____ 20. The end feels for hip motions are generally considered to be:
a. springy
b. firm
c. empty
d. soft

____ 21. The closed packed position of the hip joint is a combination of:
a. extension; abduction; medial rotation
b. lateral rotation; flexion and adduction
c. flexion; abduction and medial rotation
d. lateral rotation, flexion, abduction

____ 22. The labrum is connected inferiorly by which ligament?
a. Pubofemoral
b. Iliofemoral
c. Transverse acetabular ligament
d. Ligamentum teres

____ 23. The hip joint capsule is considered to be the strongest:
a. anteriorly and superiorly
b. anteriorly and inferiorly
c. posteriorly and superiorly
d. posteriorly and inferiorly

____ 24. The iliofemoral, ischiofemoral, and pubofemoral ligaments are all taut with hip:
a. flexion
b. extension
c. abduction
d. lateral rotation

____ 25. This ligament limits medial rotation of the hip joint:
a. iliofemoral
b. ischiofemoral
c. pubofemoral
d. ligamentum teres

____ 26. This ligament allows an individual with paraplegia to maintain standing balance when the ankle and foot are stabilized by an orthosis:
a. iliofemoral
b. ischiofemoral
c. pubofemoral
d. ligamentum teres

____ 27. Which bursae is most commonly irritated and hence encountered in a clinical setting?
a. Iliopsoas
b. Iliopectineal
c. Greater trochanteric
d. Lesser trochanteric

____ 28. Most muscles of the anterior hip are innervated by the ________ nerve.
a. lateral femoral cutaneous
b. femoral
c. obturator
d. sciatic

____ 29. Of the

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