Campbell Biology 7th Edition by Neil A. Jane B. Reece Test Bank

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Campbell Biology 7th Edition by Neil A. Jane B. Reece Test Bank

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Campbell Biology 7th Edition by Neil A. Jane B. Reece Test Bank

Chapter 02. The Chemical Basis of Life
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The four most common elements in living organisms are
A) C, H, O, Fe. B) C, H, O, Na. C) C, H, O, N. D) C, N, O, Na.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) Which of the following is a trace element in the human body?
A) nitrogen B) zinc C) oxygen D) hydrogen
Answer: B
Topic: 2.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) Which of the following statements regarding matter is false?
A) All life is composed of matter. B) All matter has mass.
C) All matter is composed of elements. D) All matter exists in the form of compounds.
Answer: D
Topic: 2.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4) Which of the following statements best describes a compound?
A) A compound is a pure element.
B) A compound contains two or more different elements in a fixed ratio.
C) A compound is exemplified by sodium.
D) A compound is a solution.
Answer: B
Topic: 2.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) In the equation 2 H2 + O2 2 H2O,
A) H2, O2, and H2O are all compounds. B) H2, O2, and H2O are all elements.
C) only H2O is a compound. D) only H2 and O2 are compounds.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.1
Skill: Application/Analysis
6) Which of the following trace elements needed by humans is commonly added to table salt?
A) iodine B) iron C) magnesium D) fluoride
Answer: A
Topic: 2.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7) In some areas, fluoride is added during the municipal water treatment process in order to help
A) prevent goiter B) prevent the growth of bacteria
C) prevent the development of mental retardation D) reduce tooth decay
Answer: D
Topic: 2.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
1
8) Which of the following particles is found in the nucleus of an atom?
A) protons and neutrons B) protons and electrons
C) only protons D) only electrons
Answer: A
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9) Electrons move about the nucleus of an atom in the same way that
A) insects fly around a bright lamp at night. B) cars are parked along the sides of a street.
C) boats cross a lake. D) birds migrate to a new winter home.
Answer: A
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
10) What is the atomic mass of an atom that has 6 protons, 6 neutrons, and 6 electrons?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 12 D) 18
Answer: C
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
11) An uncharged atom of boron has an atomic number of 5 and an atomic mass of 11. How many electrons does
boron have?
A) 11 B) 15 C) 5 D) 2
Answer: C
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
12) Which of the following is another term used for atomic mass?
A) darwin B) mendel C) dalton D) calvin
Answer: C
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
13) The sodium atom contains 11 electrons, 11 protons, and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of sodium?
A) 11 B) 22 C) 23 D) 34
Answer: C
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
14) Which of the following best describes the atomic number of an atom?
A) the number of protons in the atom
B) the number of electrons in the atom
C) the number of neutrons in the atom
D) the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in the atom
Answer: A
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2
15) Typically, nitrogen atoms are composed of electrons, protons, and neutrons. An isotope of nitrogen could
A) be positively charged.
B) be negatively charged.
C) have more protons than the usual nitrogen atom.
D) have more neutrons than the usual nitrogen atom.
Answer: D
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
16) A radioactive isotope is an isotope that
A) is stable.
B) decays.
C) has more protons than the common variant of the element.
D) has the same atomic mass, but a different atomic number than the common variant of the element.
Answer: B
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
17) If you found a fossilized dinosaur bone, what method could be used to determine the age of the fossil?
A) electrophoresis B) DNA fingerprinting
C) isotope analysis D) radial immunodiffusion
Answer: C
Topic: 2.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
18) Which of the following statements about radioactive isotopes is true?
A) The nuclei of radioactive isotopes are unusually stable, but the atoms tend to lose electrons.
B) When given a choice between radioactive and nonradioactive isotopes of the same atom, living cells are
more likely to incorporate the radioactive isotopes into their structures.
C) The energy emitted by radioactive isotopes can break chemical bonds and cause molecular damage in
cells.
D) Radioactive elements are natural and therefore not harmful.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
19) Radioactive isotopes
A) are frequently added to foods as nutritional supplements.
B) can be used in conjunction with PET scans to diagnose diseases.
C) do not occur naturally.
D) are never incorporated into organic compounds.
Answer: B
Topic: 2.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
20) When full, the innermost electron shell of argon contains ________ electrons, and the outermost shell contains
________ electrons.
A) 2 . . . 2 B) 2 . . . 8 C) 4 . . . 8 D) 8 . . . 8
Answer: B
Topic: 2.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3
21) What happens to an atom if the electrons in the outer shell are altered?
A) The atom becomes radioactive.
B) The atom will disintegrate.
C) The properties of the atom will change.
D) The atoms characteristics change and it becomes a different element.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
22) A(n) ________ forms when two atoms share electrons.
A) ion B) covalent bond C) ionic bond D) hydrogen bond
Answer: B
Topic: 2.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
23) A hydrogen atom has one electron. How many covalent bonds can hydrogen form?
A) one covalent bond B) two covalent bonds
C) four covalent bonds D) no covalent bonds
Answer: A
Topic: 2.6
Skill: Application/Analysis
24) Table salt is formed when
A) chlorine gives an electron to sodium.
B) a hydrogen bond forms between sodium and chlorine.
C) sodium and chlorine share electrons to form a bond.
D) sodium donates its single outer electron to chlorine.
Answer: D
Topic: 2.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
25) The body uses atoms in different ways to accomplish different tasks. For example, one portion of the bodys
calcium supply strengthens bones, whereas another portion combines with proteins to stimulate blood clotting
after tissue injury. Which of the statements that follow provides the most logical chemical explanation of
calciums ability to perform such different functions?
A) The bone contains calcium salts, which are less reactive than the calcium ions found in the blood.
B) The calcium in blood is a more reactive form of the atom and therefore has fewer protons than the
calcium in bone.
C) There are many different isotopes of calcium, and the most reactive isotope is found in the bone.
D) The calcium in blood has a lighter atomic mass than the calcium in bone and is in a more reactive form.
Answer: A
Topic: 2.7
Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation
4
26) Medicines are often administered in pill form. In many cases, the active ingredient of the pill (the drug) is
joined to another substance by ________. This forms a(n) ________, which is stable in the dry environment of a
pill bottle but dissociates under the wet conditions of the digestive system to release the drug to the body.
A) ionic bonds . . . salt B) hydrogen bonds . . . base
C) ionic bonds . . . acid D) covalent bonds . . . salt
Answer: A
Topic: 2.7
Skill: Application/Analysis
27) What is the fundamental difference between covalent and ionic bonding?
A) In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond, one partner accepts electrons
from the other.
B) In covalent bonding, both partners end up with filled outer electron shells; in ionic bonding, one partner
does and the other does not.
C) Covalent bonding involves only the outermost electron shell; ionic bonding also involves the next
electron shell inside the outermost shell.
D) Covalent bonds form between atoms of the same element; ionic bonds form between atoms of different
elements.
Answer: A
Topic: 2.6, 2.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
28) Which of the following statements regarding the oxygen atom of a water molecule is true?
A) Oxygen is more positively charged than the hydrogen atoms.
B) Oxygen attracts electrons less strongly than the hydrogen atoms.
C) Oxygen is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.
D) Oxygen is attracted to the negatively charged atoms of other molecules.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
29) In a water molecule, hydrogen and oxygen are held together by a(n) ________ bond.
A) double covalent B) nonpolar covalent C) hydrogen D) polar covalent
Answer: D
Topic: 2.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
30) A water molecule (HOH) is held together by
A) a single covalent bond. B) a double covalent bond.
C) two polar covalent bonds. D) hydrogen bonds.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
31) The hydrogen atoms of a water molecule are bonded to the oxygen atom by ________ bonds, whereas
neighboring water molecules are held together by ________ bonds.
A) hydrogen . . . polar covalent B) polar covalent . . . hydrogen
C) ionic . . . covalent D) polar covalent . . . ionic
Answer: B
Topic: 2.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5
32) ________ are weak bonds that are not strong enough to hold atoms together to form molecules but are strong
enough to form bonds within and around large molecules.
A) Ionic bonds B) Covalent bonds
C) Polar covalent bonds D) Hydrogen bonds
Answer: D
Topic: 2.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
33) Water molecules stick to other water molecules because
A) water molecules are neutral, and neutral molecules are attracted to each other.
B) hydrogen bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other
water molecules.
C) covalent bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other
water molecules.
D) the oxygen atoms of adjacent water molecules are attracted to one another.
Answer: B
Topic: 2.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
34) Which of the following statements regarding chemical reactions is false?
A) Chemical reactions involve the making and breaking of chemical bonds.
B) Some chemical reactions create electrons; others destroy them.
C) The reactants contain the same number of atoms as the products.
D) Although the atoms of a reactions reactants and products are identical to each other, their molecular
formulae differ.
Answer: B
Topic: 2.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
35) In the equation 2 H2 + O2 2 H2O, the H2 molecules are ________ and the H2O molecules are ________.
A) reactants . . . products B) products . . . reactants
C) created . . . destroyed D) used . . . stored
Answer: A
Topic: 2.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
36) Photosynthesis requires many steps to make glucose. As a result of the synthesis process,
A) all the carbons from the six carbon dioxide atoms are found in glucose.
B) more atoms are present at the beginning than at the end.
C) more carbon dioxide is released from the plant than is absorbed.
D) water is synthesized by the plant from H2 and O2.
Answer: A
Topic: 2.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
37) The tendency of water molecules to stick together is referred to as
A) adhesion. B) polarity. C) cohesion. D) transpiration.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6
38) Waters surface tension and heat storage capacity is accounted for by its
A) orbitals. B) hydrogen bonds. C) mass. D) size.
Answer: B
Topic: 2.10, 2.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
39) The temperature of evaporation is much higher for water than for alcohol. Without knowing more about the
chemistry of alcohol, which of the following is the most logical chemical explanation for this phenomenon?
A) Ionic bonds form between alcohol molecules. These are the weakest type of bond and are easier to break
than the hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
B) Alcohol has a higher surface tension than water. This means that alcohol molecules can easily break away
from other alcohol molecules and evaporate at a lower temperature.
C) Alcohol molecules are more cohesive than water molecules. This means that as alcohol molecules
evaporate, they pull other alcohol molecules into the air along with them.
D) Fewer hydrogen bonds form between alcohol molecules. As a result, less heat is needed for alcohol
molecules to break away from solution and enter the air.
Answer: D
Topic: 2.11
Skill: Application/Analysis
40) As ice melts,
A) hydrogen bonds are broken. B) water molecules become less tightly packed.
C) the water becomes less dense. D) heat is released.
Answer: A
Topic: 2.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
41) Which of the following statements about water is false?
A) Ice is more dense than liquid water.
B) Water naturally exists in all three physical states on Earth.
C) Floating ice on a pond insulates the liquid water below, slowing its rate of freezing.
D) If ice sank, the oceans would eventually freeze solid.
Answer: A
Topic: 2.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
42) Youve made a hot drink by dissolving a teaspoon of instant coffee and a teaspoon of sugar in a cup of hot
water. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Youve just prepared an aqueous solution.
B) The water is the solute portion of the drink.
C) The instant coffee and sugar are solvents.
D) The instant coffee and sugar dissolve because they have no charged regions to repel the partial positive
and partial negative regions of the water molecules.
Answer: A
Topic: 2.13
Skill: Application/Analysis
7
43) Which of the following is dependent on the ability of water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other
molecules besides water?
A) the evaporative cooling of skin surfaces
B) the milder temperatures of coastal regions compared to inland areas
C) the ability of certain insects to walk on the surface of water
D) the universality of water as a solvent
Answer: D
Topic: 2.10, 2.11, 2.13
Skill: Application/Analysis
44) Clot formation in our blood can lead to a heart attack or stroke. What was altered in the proteins that made the
clot?
A) The proteins became more polar.
B) The blood was saturated with proteins.
C) The proteins were no longer soluble in the blood.
D) The proteins became more soluble in the blood.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
45) A pharmaceutical company hires a chemist to analyze the purity of the water being used in its drug
preparations. If the water is pure, the chemist would expect to find
A) only molecules of H2O. B) H2O molecules and H+ ions.
C) H2O molecules, H+ ions, and OH- ions. D) only H+ ions and OH- ions.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
46) A solution with a pH of 7 is
A) strongly acidic. B) weakly acidic. C) neutral. D) weakly basic.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
47) Compared to a solution of pH 3, a solution of pH 1 is
A) 100 times more acidic. B) 10 times more acidic.
C) 10 times more basic. D) 100 times more basic.
Answer: A
Topic: 2.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
48) Which of the following statements about pH is true?
A) The pH scale is a measure of oxygen ion concentration.
B) A single unit change on the pH scale is equivalent to a 1% change in hydrogen ion concentration.
C) An increase in hydrogen ion concentration means a decrease in pH scale units.
D) Basic pH levels are less than 7.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8
49) Household ammonia has a pH of 12; household bleach has a pH of 13. Which of the following statements about
them is true?
A) Both of these substances are strong acids.
B) The ammonia has 10 times as many OH- ions as the bleach.
C) The ammonia has 10 times as many H+ ions as the bleach.
D) A solution that could buffer the bleach and ammonia would remove excess OH- ions.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
50) A buffer
A) is an acid that is used to offset overly basic conditions in the body.
B) is a base that is used to offset overly acidic conditions in the body.
C) donates H+ ions when conditions become too basic and accepts H+ ions when conditions become too
acidic.
D) donates OH- ions when conditions become too basic and accepts OH- ions when conditions become too
acidic.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
51) A diabetic, who does not utilize insulin properly, will metabolize fats instead of glucose. A condition called
diabetic ketoacidosis is a common result of excessive fat metabolism, causing blood pH values of 7.1 or less
(normal range = 7.357.45). What has happened to the blood pH and why?
A) The pH is above normal (basic) because the ketones are too basic.
B) The pH is below normal (acidic) because the buffering capacity was exceeded.
C) The pH is not affected because the blood buffers can absorb the excess H+.
D) The pH is below normal because buffers can donate OH+.
Answer: B
Topic: 2.14
Skill: Application/Analysis
52) Which of the following statements about acid precipitation is false?
A) Acid precipitation is defined as having a pH below 5.6.
B) Acid precipitation damages natural wilderness areas.
C) Acid precipitation is primarily the result of burning fossil fuels.
D) Acid precipitation has little or no effect on soil chemistry.
Answer: D
Topic: 2.15
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
53) The emission of ________ and ________ are primarily responsible for acid precipitation.
A) carbon dioxide . . . methane B) nitrogen oxides . . . sulfur oxides
C) halones . . . CFCs D) carbon dioxide . . . ozone
Answer: B
Topic: 2.15
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9
54) Which of the following would be considered an effective way to decrease the production of acid precipitation?
A) Drive more full-size SUVs.
B) Build more coal-generated electricity power plants.
C) Discourage the use of alternative energy resources such as solar, wind, and geothermal energy.
D) Whenever possible, walk or ride a bicycle instead of driving a car.
Answer: D
Topic: 2.15
Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation
55) Which of the following hypotheses would be supported if liquid water were found on Mars and contained
evidence of bacteria-like organisms?
A) Life must evolve in the presence of oxygen. B) The chemical evolution of life is possible.
C) Life on Earth must have originated on Mars. D) Life is guided by intelligent design.
Answer: B
Topic: 2.16
Skill: Application/Analysis
56) What change is occurring in this figure?
A) Chlorine is losing an electron. B) Sodium is becoming negatively charged.
C) Sodium is filling its third electron shell. D) Chlorine is filling its third electron shell.
Answer: D
Topic: 2.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
10
57) The hydrogen bonds shown in this figure are each
A) between two hydrogen atoms.
B) between an oxygen and a hydrogen atom of the same water molecule.
C) between an oxygen and a hydrogen atom of different water molecules.
D) between two atoms with the same charge.
Answer: C
Topic: 2.8
Skill: Application/Analysis
After reading the paragraph, answer the question(s) that follow.
Youve been experiencing acid indigestion lately, and youd like a quick fix for the problem. You do a little research on the
Internet and discover that your problem is caused by excess stomach acid. In the pharmacy aisles, however, youre having a
little trouble deciding what to purchase to address the problem. At the pharmacy counter, the clerk recommends that you
purchase Pepcid-AC or Alka-Seltzer tablets.
58) If you could check the pH of the recommended tablets, you would expect it to be
A) higher than 7. B) lower than 7. C) exactly 7. D) pH neutral.
Answer: A
Topic: 2.14
Skill: Application/Analysis
59) If you were able to chemically analyze your stomach fluids 30 minutes after taking two tablets, you would find
A) more hydrogen ions. B) fewer hydrogen ions.
C) the same number of hydrogen ions. D) that the pH in your stomach has decreased.
Answer: B
Topic: 2.14
Skill: Application/Analysis
11

Chapter 14. The Origin of Species
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Speciation, or the formation of new species, is
A) a form of microevolution.
B) responsible for the diversity of life.
C) necessary for natural selection and adaptation.
D) an event that has occurred only a few times in the history of the planet.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) Which of the following would a biologist describe as microevolution?
A) the formation of new species
B) the extinction of species
C) dramatic biological changes, such as the origin of flight, within a taxon
D) a change in the gene pool of a population from one generation to the next
Answer: D
Topic: 14.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) Under the biological species concept, a species is a group of organisms that
A) are physically similar.
B) share a recent common ancestor.
C) live together in a location and carry out identical ecological roles.
D) have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4) The biological species concept is
A) applicable to all forms of life, past and present.
B) applicable to all present life forms, but not to fossil organisms whose reproductive behavior cannot be
observed.
C) easy to apply to all present sexually reproducing organisms, but harder to apply to asexual organisms
and fossils.
D) sometimes difficult to put into practice even for present sexual organisms, and useless for asexual
organisms and fossils.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) Which of the following statements regarding the definition of species is false?
A) The ecological species concept identifies species in terms of their ecological niches.
B) The phylogenetic species concept defines a species as a set of organisms that shares a common ancestor
and forms one branch on the tree of life.
C) The morphological species concept relies upon comparing the DNA sequences of organisms.
D) Under the biological species concept, the gap between species is maintained by reproductive isolation.
Answer: C
Topic: 14.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
1
6) Which provides the most general and correct description of the idea of a reproductive barrier?
A) any feature (of geography, behavior, or morphology) that keeps one species from mating with another
B) a biological difference between two species that prevents them from successfully interbreeding
C) a geographic barrier that separates two species and prevents gene flow between them
D) a difference in behavior that keeps two species from interbreeding
Answer: B
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7) Two populations of organisms belong to the same biological species when they
A) cant mate with each other, because mating occurs at different times.
B) use different types of behaviors or physical features to attract mates.
C) have anatomical features that make it difficult for organisms from the different populations to mate.
D) encounter each other, mate, and produce viable, fertile offspring under natural conditions.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8) Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of species that could interbreed except
that one mates at dusk and the other at dawn?
A) temporal isolation B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation D) mechanical isolation
Answer: A
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
9) Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of insect species that could interbreed
except that one lives on goldenrod plants and the other on autumn daisies in the same general area?
A) temporal isolation B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation D) gametic isolation
Answer: B
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
10) Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of moth species that could interbreed
except that the females mating pheromones are not attractive to the males of the other species?
A) temporal isolation B) behavioral isolation
C) mechanical isolation D) gametic isolation
Answer: B
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
11) Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates two flowering plant species that could
interbreed except that one has a deep flower tube and is pollinated by bumblebees, whereas the other has a
short, narrow flower tube and is pollinated by honeybees?
A) habitat isolation B) behavioral isolation
C) mechanical isolation D) gametic isolation
Answer: C
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
2
12) Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates two species of sea cucumbers, whose sperm
and eggs often bump into each other but do not cross-fertilize because of incompatible proteins on their
surfaces?
A) temporal isolation B) habitat isolation
C) mechanical isolation D) gametic isolation
Answer: D
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
13) Two species that occasionally mate and produce zygotes, but which have incompatible genes that prevent the
resulting embryo from developing, are separated by
A) gametic isolation. B) reduced hybrid fertility.
C) reduced hybrid viability. D) hybrid breakdown.
Answer: C
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
14) Two species that sometimes mate and produce vigorous but sterile offspring are separated by
A) gametic isolation. B) reduced hybrid fertility.
C) reduced hybrid viability. D) hybrid breakdown.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
15) Two species interbreed occasionally and produce vigorous, fertile hybrids. When the hybrids breed with each
other or with either parent species, however, the offspring are feeble or sterile. These species are separated by
A) gametic isolation. B) reduced hybrid fertility.
C) reduced hybrid viability. D) hybrid breakdown.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
16) Frequently, a group of related species will each have a unique courtship ritual that must be performed correctly
for both partners to be willing to mate. Such a ritual constitutes a ________, ________ reproductive barrier.
A) mechanical . . . postzygotic B) behavioral . . . prezygotic
C) temporal . . . prezygotic D) gametic . . . postzygotic
Answer: B
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
17) The Monterey pine and the Bishops pine inhabit some of the same areas of central California. The Monterey
pine releases pollen in February, while the Bishops pine does so in April. This is an example of ________
isolation.
A) postzygotic B) temporal C) habitat D) mechanical
Answer: B
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
3
18) The geographic isolation of a population from other members of the species and the subsequent evolution of
reproductive barriers between it and the parent species describes ________ speciation.
A) punctuated B) sympatric C) allopatric D) biogeographic
Answer: C
Topic: 14.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
19) Uplift and formation of a mountain range divides a freshwater snail species into two isolated populations.
Erosion eventually lowers the mountain range and brings the two populations together again, but when they
mate, the resulting hybrids all produce sterile young. This scenario is an example of
A) sympatric speciation. B) allopatric speciation.
C) incomplete speciation. D) diversifying speciation.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.4
Skill: Application/Analysis
20) In which of the following situations would speciation be most likely to occur?
A) A population of juniper shrubs is split in two by a canyon. Every year, strong winds carry a small amount
of the shrubs pollen across the canyon.
B) A Japanese mollusk species whose larvae are often carried from port to port in ship bilge water now
flourishes in San Francisco Bay, a busy commercial port.
C) Bighorn sheep occupy mountains from Canada through Death Valley in Southern California,
interbreeding all the way. The populations at the two ends of the range live in very different
environments.
D) Seven monkeys escape from an amusement park and zoo in South Florida. To everyones surprise, they
establish a small but viable population, coexisting successfully with humans in a partly suburban
environment very different from their native African habitat.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.4
Skill: Application/Analysis
21) Diane Dodds experiments using fruit flies demonstrated that
A) the evolution of reproductive barriers occurs much too slowly to produce measurable effects in the
laboratory.
B) new species can form in a single generation by the production of new reproductive structures.
C) formation of a reproductive barrier between two populations is more likely if they experience and adapt
to different environmental conditions.
D) reproductive barriers usually are absoluteeither two populations are fully willing and able to interbreed,
or they are strictly separated by a fully effective reproductive barrier.
Answer: C
Topic: 14.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
22) Diane Dodd raised different fruit fly populations on different food sources. She found that after about 40
generations, the evolution of reproductive isolation was under way. The mechanism of evolution responsible
for this was
A) natural selection. B) genetic drift. C) gene flow. D) mutation.
Answer: A
Topic: 14.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4
23) When plants undergo allopatric speciation, an initial reproductive barrier is often
A) polyploidy. B) gametic isolation. C) temporal isolation. D) pollinator choice.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
24) Speciation without geographic isolation is called ________ speciation.
A) sympatric B) allopatric C) incomplete D) diversifying
Answer: A
Topic: 14.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
25) Organisms that possess more than two complete sets of chromosomes are said to be
A) haploid. B) polyploid. C) diploid. D) hybrids.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
26) Most polyploid species arise from
A) a single diploid parent plant. B) a single triploid parent plant.
C) a single tetraploid parent plant. D) the hybridization of two parent species.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
27) When a tetraploid flower pollinates a diploid flower of the parental species, the resulting offspring will be
A) pentaploid and sterile. B) diploid and fertile.
C) triploid and fertile. D) triploid and sterile.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
28) Sympatric speciation commonly occurs through ________ in plants, but is more likely to occur through
________ in animals.
A) polyploidy . . . habitat differentiation and sexual selection
B) habitat differentiation and sexual selection . . . polyploidy
C) asexual reproduction . . . chromosome duplications
D) self-pollination . . . polyploidy and other genetic mechanisms
Answer: A
Topic: 14.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5
29) Ancestral diploid wheat species had 2n = 14 chromosomes. What happened when two of these species
hybridized?
A) They produced a viable, fertile hybrid species with 14 chromosomes.
B) They produced a hybrid species that could not complete mitosis so it did not develop properly.
C) They produced a hybrid species with 14 chromosomes that was sterile, because the chromosomes from
the two different parent species did not pair up properly in meiosis.
D) They produced a hybrid species with 28 chromosomes.
Answer: C
Topic: 14.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
30) Which of the following statements about plant speciation and hybridization is false?
A) Plant biologists estimate that 80% of all living plant species are descended from ancestors that formed by
polyploid speciation.
B) Bread wheat is the ancestral diploid wheat plant.
C) Modern plant geneticists use chemicals to induce meiotic and mitotic errors to try to create new hybrid
plants with special qualities.
D) Bread wheat grown widely today is the result of several hybridization events.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
31) Which of the following statements about the Galpagos finches is false?
A) The Galpagos finch species differ in their feeding habitats.
B) Each island in the Galpagos chain has one and only one isolated, unique species of Darwins finch.
C) Most speciation events of the Galpagos finches occurred when some finches made it to another island,
evolved in isolation, and accumulated enough changes to become a new species.
D) The evolution of the Galpagos finches is an excellent example of adaptive radiation.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
32) The emergence of many diverse species from a common ancestor is called
A) adaptive radiation. B) gradualism.
C) allopatric speciation. D) hybridization.
Answer: A
Topic: 14.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
33) Which of the following would tend to promote adaptive radiation?
A) An organism has a very stable set of features and capabilities over long spans of evolutionary time.
B) An organism colonizes an isolated area that is habitable but relatively devoid of life.
C) An organism colonizes an area that already has a high level of existing species diversity.
D) A single species goes extinct, but it has several competitors that quickly expand to assume its ecological
roles.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6
34) In their 30-year studies of Darwins finches, the Grants have discovered that while the medium ground finch
and cactus finch occasionally form hybrids, these hybrids
A) usually die before hatching.
B) can only survive during wet years when there are plenty of small seeds.
C) reproduce with the parent species, showing that ground finches and cactus finches are all one species.
D) are unable to produce a song and are therefore unable to find a mate.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
35) Two bird species overlap in a hybrid zone. They are isolated by a slight difference in the male songs and by the
females tendency to select males with the correct song. Hybrid offspring tend to have reduced fertility
compared to either of the parent species. What effect might natural selection have in this situation?
A) Natural selection might favor males with less distinctive calls and/or females that are less choosy.
B) Natural selection might favor males with more distinctive calls and/or females that are more choosy. As
a result, the reproductive barrier between the two species could be reinforced.
C) Natural selection could lead to the hybrid species taking over and eliminating the weaker parent species.
D) Natural selection could lead to the stronger of the two species taking over and eliminating the other
species.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.10
Skill: Application/Analysis
36) In a hybrid zone, ________ can occur if the reproductive barrier between two species is weak, as seen among
cichlids in the murky waters of modern Lake Victoria.
A) reinforcement B) fusion
C) allopatric speciation D) reproductive isolation
Answer: B
Topic: 14.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
37) The ________ suggests that speciation occurs in brief spurts.
A) adaptive model of the origin of species B) allopatric speciation model
C) gradual model of the origin of species D) punctuated equilibrium model
Answer: D
Topic: 14.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
38) The emergence of a new plant species over a brief period of time, followed by a long period of little change, is
consistent with which of the following theories?
A) the gradual model of speciation B) allopatric speciation
C) punctuated equilibrium D) adaptive radiation
Answer: C
Topic: 14.11
Skill: Application/Analysis
7
39) One of the key contributions of the punctuated equilibrium model is that it helps explain
A) why transitional fossils are more common than Darwin would have predicted.
B) why transitional fossils tend to be rare and certain common fossil species remain unchanged for long time
spans.
C) how new species arise from hybridization events.
D) why large, widespread populations tend to be the ones that evolve most rapidly and unpredictably.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
40) Which of the following descriptions best represents the gradual model of speciation?
A) Speciation occurs regularly as a result of the accumulation of many small changes.
B) An isolated population differentiates quickly from its parent stock as it adapts to its local environment.
C) Speciation occurs under unusual circumstances and therefore transitional fossils are hard to find.
D) Species undergo little change over long periods interrupted only by short periods of rapid change.
Answer: A
Topic: 14.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
41) One of the finest available sequences of fossils shows how horses have changed slowly and by subtle steps
from small shrub-browsing ancestors to the large, grass-grazing modern horse. A large number of fossil
species have been named, and it is often difficult to decide on the identity of a fossil horse because transitional
forms are common. This record of evolution best fits the idea of
A) the gradual model of speciation. B) punctuated equilibrium.
C) adaptive radiation. D) hybrid breakdown.
Answer: A
Topic: 14.11
Skill: Application/Analysis
42) The fossil record shows that for many plant and animal groups, the time between speciation events
A) is usually about 50,000 years.
B) varies greatly, but averages 6.5 million years.
C) is usually greater than 40 million years.
D) is equivalent to the length of one hundred generations of a species.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8
43) Which species of wheat shown is polyploid?
A) T. monococcum B) the AB sterile hybrid
C) T. turgidun D) T. tauschii
Answer: C
Topic: 14.7
Skill: Application/Analysis
9
44) Which butterfly has changed gradually but significantly from its ancestor through microevolutionary events
that were not part of a speciation event?
A) butterfly A B) butterfly B C) butterfly C D) butterfly D
Answer: D
Topic: 14.11
Skill: Application/Analysis
After reading the paragraph, answer the question(s) that follow.
In 2004, scientists announced the discovery of the fossil remains of some extremely short early humans on the Indonesian
island of Flores. The new species has been named Homo floresiensis. One hypothesis is that H. floresiensis evolved from Homo
erectus, another early human species. How did a population of H. erectus become isolated on this remote island? Early
humans constructed boats and rafts, so perhaps they were blown far off course by strong winds during a storm.
H. erectus averaged almost 6 feet in height, but the remains show that adults of H. floresiensis were only about 3 feet tall. Its
hypothesized that limited resources on this hot and humid island (only 31 square miles) exerted selection pressure and
succeeding generations began to shrink in size. Small bodies require less food, use less energy, and are easier to cool than
larger bodies. Evolution of small size in similar circumstances has been observed in many other species, but never before in
humans. This find demonstrates that evolutionary forces operate on humans in the same way as on all other organisms.
45) The evolution of Homo floresiensis is an example of
A) sympatric speciation. B) allopatric speciation.
C) adaptive radiation. D) hybridization.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.4
Skill: Application/Analysis
10
46) If H. floresiensis were reunited with H. erectus at a much later date, but the two populations could no longer
interbreed, it would be correct to conclude that H. floresiensis
A) is no longer fertile as a species. B) had been isolated for more than 50,000 years.
C) has become less fit than H. erectus. D) had evolved reproductive barriers.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.5
Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation
11

Chapter 28. Nervous Systems
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The central communication conduit between the brain and the rest of the body is the
A) brain stem. B) nerve bundle. C) spinal cord. D) nervous system.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) The two major anatomical divisions of the nervous system are the
A) sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system.
B) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.
C) sensory nervous system and motor nervous system.
D) voluntary nervous system and involuntary nervous system.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) Nervous system effector cells
A) are white cells found in the circulatory system. B) consist of sensory cells.
C) include muscle cells and gland cells. D) provide automatic responses to stimuli.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4) Which of the following statements regarding the nervous system is true?
A) Sensory neurons convey signals from the CNS to sensory receptors.
B) Motor neurons convey signals from the CNS to effector cells.
C) The PNS is composed entirely of nerves.
D) The CNS and the brain are the same thing.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) The functional unit of the nervous system is the
A) cell body. B) neuron. C) axon. D) synapse.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6) What part of a neuron carries signals toward the part of the cell that houses the nucleus?
A) node of Ranvier B) axon C) cell body D) dendrite
Answer: D
Topic: 28.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7) The speed of impulse conduction along an axon may be increased by
A) a myelin sheath B) a graded potential. C) neurotransmitters. D) EPSPs.
Answer: A
Topic: 28.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
1
8) Multiple sclerosis results from an autoimmune disease that primarily involves
A) destruction of the hippocampus. B) destruction of the myelin sheath.
C) destruction of regions of the motor cortex. D) deterioration of parts of the spinal cord.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9) Which of the following statements about resting potential is true?
A) A resting membrane allows much more sodium than potassium to diffuse across.
B) The concentration of sodium is much higher inside the cell than outside.
C) The resting potential exists because of differences in glucose concentration inside and outside the cell.
D) The sodium-potassium pump contributes to the resting membrane potential.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
10) Once an action potential is triggered, there is a
A) reversal of the membrane polarity, with the interior of the cell becoming positively charged.
B) reversal of the membrane polarity, with the interior of the cell becoming negatively charged.
C) sudden rush of potassium into the neuron.
D) sudden impermeability of the membrane to the transport of ions.
Answer: A
Topic: 28.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
11) Once the threshold potential is reached,
A) K+ channels open.
B) Na+ channels close.
C) an action potential is inevitable.
D) the interior of the cell becomes negative with respect to the outside.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
12) Action potentials normally travel along an axon
A) toward the cell body. B) away from the cell body.
C) either towards or away from the cell body D) away from the synapse.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
13) Action potentials relay different intensities of information due to the
A) amplitude of action potentials relative to the strength of the stimulus.
B) frequency of action potentials relative to the strength of the stimulus.
C) duration of action potentials relative to the strength of the stimulus.
D) shape of action potentials relative to the strength of the stimulus.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2
14) The gap between the transmitting and receiving neurons in a chemical synapse is known as the
A) synaptic node. B) synaptic gap. C) gap junction. D) synaptic cleft.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
15) During transmission across a typical chemical synapse,
A) neurotransmitter molecules are stored in the synaptic cleft.
B) action potentials trigger chemical changes that make the synaptic vesicles fuse with each other.
C) vesicles containing neurotransmitter diffuse to the receiving cells plasma membrane.
D) neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the receiving cells plasma membrane.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
16) The signal that crosses a synapse is stopped when
A) a second action potential traveling down the signaling cell sounds a retreat and the neurotransmitters
return to the signaling cell
B) the responding cell runs out of sodium and is no longer able to respond to the stimulus.
C) the responding cell runs out of potassium and is no longer able to respond to the stimulus.
D) the neurotransmitter is enzymatically broken down or transported back to the signaling cell.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
17) Neurotransmitters that open Na+ channels and trigger action potentials in receiving cells are called
A) inhibitory. B) cross-linked. C) excitatory. D) obligatory.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
18) The effect of a sending neuron on a receiving neuron is typically greater when ________ neurotransmitters bind
to the receiving neuron and the synapse is ________ the base of the receiving cells axon.
A) more . . . close to B) fewer . . . close to C) more . . . far from D) fewer . . . far from
Answer: A
Topic: 28.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
19) Botulinum toxin (Botox) produced by certain bacteria will
A) prevent enzymatic breakdown of neurotransmitters.
B) cause continual contraction of smooth muscle.
C) initiate an increase in the strength of a transmitted signal.
D) inhibit the release of acetylcholine.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3
20) One neurotransmitter associated with sleep, mood, attention, and learning is
A) acetylcholine. B) NO. C) epinephrine. D) serotonin.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
21) Parkinsons disease is associated with a deficiency in
A) dopamine. B) serotonin. C) acetylcholine. D) endorphins.
Answer: A
Topic: 28.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
22) Valium, a prescription drug used to treat depression, works by
A) binding and activating acetylcholine receptors.
B) increasing the inhibitory effect of GABA.
C) increasing the release and availability of norepinephrine and dopamine at synapses.
D) activating receptors for GABA.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
23) Morphine, codeine, and heroin are all opiates that function by
A) binding to acetylcholine receptors.
B) blocking the removal of serotonin from synapses.
C) binding to GABA receptors.
D) binding to endorphin receptors.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
24) The uniformity in the way nerve cells function within the animal kingdom
A) indicates that the PNS evolved before the CNS.
B) is evidence that the neuron was an early evolutionary adaptation.
C) is proof of neurotransmitter efficiency.
D) must have prevented the development of diversity.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
25) One of the most important branch points in the evolution of animals and their nervous systems was the
appearance of
A) radical symmetry. B) bilateral symmetry.
C) the spinal column. D) specialized cells for transmitting signals.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4
26) The simplest animals to display cephalization and centralization of the nervous system are
A) sponges. B) flatworms. C) cnidarians. D) echinoderms.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
27) The brain and sensory system of a bilaterally symmetric organism function most like
A) the engine of a motorboat. B) the pilot of an airplane.
C) the passengers on a train. D) a member of a marching band.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
28) Natural selection tends to correlate the structures of a nervous system with an animals interaction with the
environment. A good example are sessile or slow-moving mollusks such as clams, which
A) have little or no cephalization and simple sense organs.
B) use chemical synapses to process complex information.
C) have a well-developed brain that functions as a master control center.
D) use their circulatory system as a mechanism for distributing nerve impulses.
Answer: A
Topic: 28.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
29) Which of the following statements regarding the brain is true?
A) Ventricles in the brain are filled with interstitial fluid.
B) The blood-brain barrier helps to maintains a stable chemical environment for the brain.
C) Layers of connective tissue, called epithelium, surround and protect the brain and spinal cord.
D) White matter is mainly dendrites.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
30) The relationship between spinal nerves and the spinal cord is most like the relationship between
A) the hairs on a persons head.
B) the vertical and horizontal threads woven together to form a piece of cloth.
C) an interstate highway and the many roads that intersect with it via on- and off-ramps.
D) a bowl of spaghetti and the sauce that is poured onto it.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
31) Which division of the human nervous system carries signals to skeletal muscles?
A) autonomic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system
C) sympathetic nervous system D) motor system
Answer: D
Topic: 28.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5
32) The autonomic nervous system
A) integrates sensory inputs to the brain. B) carries signals to and from skeletal muscles.
C) regulates the internal environment of the body. D) is part of the central nervous system.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
33) Which of the following results from stimulation by the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) increased heart rate B) inhibition of the digestive organs
C) inhibition of urination D) stimulation of saliva secretion
Answer: D
Topic: 28.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
34) Which of the following results from stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system?
A) release of glucose from the liver B) decreased heart rate
C) stimulation of the digestive organs D) constriction of the bronchi
Answer: A
Topic: 28.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
35) The enteric division of the autonomic nervous system consists of neurons in the digestive tract, the gallbladder,
and the
A) heart. B) lymphatic system. C) pancreas. D) thyroid gland.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
36) When you are very nervous, perhaps before you must speak in front of your college class, you notice that your
mouth is dry and your heart is racing. This is most likely due to stimulation by the
A) enteric division of your autonomic nervous system.
B) sympathetic division of your autonomic nervous system.
C) parasympathetic division of your autonomic nervous system.
D) motor division of your parasympathetic nervous system.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.12
Skill: Application/Analysis
37) In all vertebrates, the brain consists of the
A) cerebrum, forebrain, and hindbrain. B) cerebrum, midbrain, and hindbrain.
C) forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain. D) cerebrum, cerebellum, and hindbrain.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
38) The sophisticated behavior of mammals and birds is directly related to
A) their relatively large cerebrum. B) the presence of a hindbrain.
C) their relatively large midbrain. D) the presence of a forebrain.
Answer: A
Topic: 28.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6
39) The brain of humans is strongly oriented toward the interpretation of
A) smell. B) vision. C) hearing. D) touch.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
40) A physician friend of yours is telling you about a patient with a head injury who suddenly stopped breathing.
Your friend explains that the bony rim was pressing against the breathing center. You guess that the bony rim
(whatever that is) must have been exerting pressure in the region of the
A) basal ganglia and hippocampus. B) cerebellum and cerebrum.
C) thalamus and hypothalamus. D) medulla oblongata and pons.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.14
Skill: Application/Analysis
41) You start to fall but then catch yourself, regaining your balance. Which of the following brain regions is
responsible for the rapid coordination of muscle activity that kept you from falling?
A) motor cortex B) thalamus C) cerebellum D) pons
Answer: C
Topic: 28.14
Skill: Application/Analysis
42) What part of the brain sorts incoming information, such as touch signals from your hand, into categories before
relaying it to the cerebral cortex?
A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) pons D) hippocampus
Answer: A
Topic: 28.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
43) Which of the following brain regions controls the secretion of pituitary hormones and exerts direct control over
many other aspects of homeostasis?
A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) hippocampus D) cerebellum
Answer: B
Topic: 28.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
44) Our biological clock, which regulates the sleep-wake cycle, is housed within the
A) cerebrum. B) hypothalamus. C) cerebellum. D) brain stem.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
45) The human cerebral cortex accounts for what percentage of the total mass of the brain?
A) 20% B) 40% C) 60% D) 80%
Answer: D
Topic: 28.15
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7
46) Which of the following statements regarding brain activity is true?
A) Recent research has revealed that the 1848 accident involving Phineas Gage caused damage to his
hindbrain.
B) People usually die following a hemispherectomy.
C) People cannot function when the communication channels between the hemispheres are cut.
D) New techniques, such as PET scans and fMRIs, allow researchers to associate specific parts of the brain
with certain activities.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.16
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
47) fMRI technology can provide significant insights into brain function by
A) measuring areas of electronegativity.
B) detecting damaged areas of the brain.
C) measuring changes in blood oxygen usage at sites of brain activity.
D) showing the pathways of nerve impulses.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.17
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
48) The network of neurons that extends through the core of the brainstem and selects information that reaches the
cerebral cortex during sleep is the
A) medulla. B) limbic system.
C) reticular formation. D) brainstem core.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.18
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
49) During REM sleep, an EEG shows
A) a flat trace with very few waves. B) mainly alpha waves.
C) sleep waves. D) an irregular, rapidly changing pattern.
Answer: D
Topic: 28.18
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
50) Our emotions, learning, and memory depend upon the
A) limbic system. B) parietal lobes. C) frontal lobes. D) occipital lobes.
Answer: A
Topic: 28.19
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
51) What part of the brain allows us to recognize the emotional content of facial expressions and also helps lay
down emotional memories?
A) hippocampus B) amygdala C) prefrontal cortex D) corpus callosum
Answer: B
Topic: 28.19
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8
52) Schizophrenia
A) can best be described as feeling a sense of worthlessness.
B) is often associated with hallucinations and paranoid delusions.
C) causes changes in body weight and sleeping patterns.
D) is best defined as a type of mental deterioration or dementia.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.20
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
53) Treatments for depression often include drugs that help correct imbalances in the levels of
A) serotonin. B) acetylcholine. C) nitric oxide. D) epinephrine.
Answer: A
Topic: 28.20
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
54) Which of the following statements about Alzheimers disease is true?
A) Alzheimers disease is suspected if a patient cannot retain his or her balance.
B) Alzheimers disease is age-related, increasing in frequency as people age.
C) Alzheimers disease often reverses or improves with time.
D) Alzheimers disease frequently involves positive changes in personality.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.20
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
55) Which of the following statements about Parkinsons disease is true?
A) Parkinsons disease can be cured with injections of serotonin.
B) Parkinsons disease results from the death of neurons in the cerebellum.
C) Parkinsons disease is a motor disorder, affecting physical movements of the body.
D) Parkinsons disease is age-related, decreasing in frequency as people age.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.20
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9
56) Which part of this diagram of a neuron depicts the axon?
A) part A B) part B C) part C D) part D
Answer: D
Topic: 28.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
57) Which part of this diagram of the human brain depicts the cerebellum?
A) part A B) part B C) part C D) part D
Answer: D
Topic: 28.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
10
After reading the paragraph, answer the question(s) that follow.
You recently sprayed your apartment with insecticide to remove an infestation of cockroaches. In your kitchen, you noticed
some roaches lying on their backs twitching furiously before they died. This aroused your curiosity, so you decided to
investigate exactly how the insecticide works on the nervous system.
In your research, you discover that the insecticide you used contains a permanent acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle to contract. Acetylcholinesterase removes acetylcholine
from the synapse after the signal is received. Exposure to high pesticide concentrations has a similar effect on humans and
can also be caused by exposure to the nerve gas Sarin and other chemical agents.
58) Why did the insecticide cause uncontrollable twitching in the roaches?
A) Acetylcholine was released, but the insecticide prevented it from diffusing across the synapse.
B) Acetylcholine was released, but the insecticide prevented it from binding to the receptor sites of the
postsynaptic neurons.
C) The insecticide caused continuous stimulation of the muscles.
D) The insecticide prevented acetylcholinesterase from being removed from the synapse.
Answer: C
Topic: 28.6, 28.7, 28.8, 28.9
Skill: Application/Analysis
59) Since pesticides affect humans in a manner similar to that of roaches, it would be valid to conclude that
A) acetylcholinesterase affects the DNA of all animals.
B) the mechanism of stimulating skeletal muscle contraction must be similar in humans and roaches.
C) pesticides are more harmful to roaches than humans.
D) the terminal end of the axon releases acetylcholine in roaches, but not in humans.
Answer: B
Topic: 28.6, 28.7, 28.8, 28.9
Skill: Application/Analysis
11

Chapter 38. Conservation Biology
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The primary goal of conservation biology is to
A) estimate the total number of species that exist. B) maximize the land set aside for wildlife.
C) integrate human culture back into nature. D) counter the loss of biodiversity.
Answer: D
Topic: 38.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) Approximately ________ living species have been named and described.
A) 750,000 B) 30 million C) 1.8 million D) 10 million
Answer: C
Topic: 38.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) The current rate of extinction may be as much as ________ times higher than at any other time in the past
100,000 years.
A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 10,000
Answer: C
Topic: 38.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4) Biodiversity considers
A) the genetic diversity within and between populations of a species.
B) the fate of water in the ecosystem.
C) commensal relationships between species.
D) the relationships of individuals to a food chain.
Answer: A
Topic: 38.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) Currently, the single greatest threat to biodiversity is
A) global warming. B) habitat destruction due to humans.
C) the introduction of exotic species. D) overexploitation of populations for food.
Answer: B
Topic: 38.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6) You arrive back in the United States after having visited a foreign country located on another continent. The
customs agent stops the person in front of you and confiscates the fruit basket this person is bringing home.
Being the knowledgeable person you are, you calmly explain to your enraged fellow traveler that the reason for
the detai

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