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Campbell Biology Concepts And Connections 8th Edition By Reece, Taylor Test Bank

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Campbell Biology Concepts And Connections 8th Edition By Reece, Taylor Test Bank

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Campbell Biology Concepts And Connections 8th Edition By Reece, Taylor Test Bank

Campbell Biology: Concepts and Connections, 8e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 5   The Working Cell

 

5.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Many physiological conditions are related to particular proteins in cell membranes. The number of insulin receptors in membranes is related to the amount of insulin present around those cells. If the presence of increased insulin results in a decrease in receptors and a decrease in insulin results in an increase in insulin receptors, this would be an example of

  1. A) a metabolic pathway.
  2. B) negative or regulatory feedback.
  3. C) passive transport.
  4. D) competitive inhibition.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.1, 5.15

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Global LO:  2, 6

 

2) The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of

  1. A) a phospholipid bilayer with embedded carbohydrates.
  2. B) two layers of phospholipids with cholesterol sandwiched between them.
  3. C) carbohydrates and phospholipids that can drift in the membrane.
  4. D) diverse proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

3) Membrane phospholipids

  1. A) have hydrophobic heads that face the center of the membrane and are shielded from water.
  2. B) have hydrophilic tails that face outward and are exposed to water.
  3. C) are able to drift about in the plasma membrane.
  4. D) remain fluid because they are tightly packed against one another.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.1, Chapters 3 and 4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

4) The cholesterol associated with animal cell membranes

  1. A) is attached to membrane proteins and extends into the watery environment surrounding the cell.
  2. B) helps to keep phospholipids from being too close to one another.
  3. C) is an abnormality resulting from a diet high in cholesterol.
  4. D) helps solidify the membranes when the room temperature is below freezing.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

5) If you were working for a pharmaceutical company as part of a drug discovery team, which of these enzyme inhibitors would you suggest as a productive avenue for drug development?

  1. A) a drug to treat high blood pressure that reversibly inhibits an enzyme catalyzing production of a chemical that causes blood vessels to contract
  2. B) a drug to treat diabetes that irreversibly inhibits an enzyme in the metabolic pathway to synthesize glucose
  3. C) a compound that acts as a competitive inhibitor for a digestive enzyme produced only in the presence of certain foods
  4. D) a compound that inhibits enzymes by significantly changing the pH throughout the body

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.15, 5.16

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

Learning Outcome:  5.9

Global LO:  2, 6

 

6) Aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID)inhibit inflammation by inhibiting an enzyme in the prostaglandin pathway, but by inhibiting this enzyme and this pathway they also inhibit pathways that protect the stomach from damage by stomach acid and that prevent aggregation of blood platelets to form blood clots. What can you conclude from this?

  1. A) The enzyme inhibition is nonreversible.
  2. B) The enzyme is found in many different types of cells.
  3. C) Prostaglandins cause blood clotting.
  4. D) Aspirin should not be given to people who people who need to synthesize enzymes.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.15, 5.16

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

Learning Outcome:  5.9

Global LO:  2, 6

 

7) Most of the functions of a cell membrane, including transport and enzymatic function, are performed by

  1. A) glycolipids.
  2. B) proteins.
  3. C) phospholipids.
  4. D) cholesterol.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

8) Which of the following statements regarding membrane protein function is false?

  1. A) Membrane proteins serve as enzymes.
  2. B) Membrane proteins act as receptors to molecules like hormones.
  3. C) Membrane proteins form junctions between cells.
  4. D) Membrane proteins transfer genetic information to the cytoplasm.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

9) Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell occurs when

  1. A) a signaling molecule binds to a protein that extends to the outside of the cell.
  2. B) a protein receptor on the interior of the membrane become bounds by a signaling molecule.
  3. C) the extracellular matrix is moved to the inside of the cell.
  4. D) glycoproteins are recognized by other cells.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

10) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that

  1. A) anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy.
  2. B) the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others.
  3. C) glucose cannot enter the cell.
  4. D) plasma membranes must be very thick.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

11) Which of the following statements regarding membrane function is false?

  1. A) The plasma membrane forms a selective barrier around the cell.
  2. B) The plasma membrane plays a role in transferring signals to the cells interior.
  3. C) The plasma membrane has receptors for chemical messages.
  4. D) The plasma membrane is the control center of the cell.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

12) Which characteristic promoted the utilization of lipids as the first cell membrane?

  1. A) spontaneous degradation of the intracellular environment
  2. B) self-assembly into a simple membrane
  3. C) ability to form an impermeable membrane
  4. D) formation of a semi-solid membrane

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

13) All cells are enclosed by a plasma membrane that is similar in ________ and ________.

  1. A) thickness; composition
  2. B) permeability; content
  3. C) lucidity; texture
  4. D) structure; function

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

14) Small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules such as fatty acids

  1. A) easily pass through a membranes lipid bilayer.
  2. B) very slowly diffuse through a membranes lipid bilayer.
  3. C) require transport proteins to pass through a membranes lipid bilayer.
  4. D) are actively transported across cell membranes.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

15) Which of the following substances would have the most trouble crossing a biological membrane by diffusing through the lipid bilayer?

  1. A) O2
  2. B) CO2
  3. C) Na+
  4. D) a small, nonpolar molecule such as butane (C4H10)

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

16) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane by

  1. A) osmosis.
  2. B) active transport.
  3. C) pinocytosis.
  4. D) passive transport.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

17) Which of the following statements regarding diffusion is false?

  1. A) Diffusion is a result of the thermal energy of atoms and molecules.
  2. B) Diffusion requires no input of energy into the system.
  3. C) Diffusion occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated.
  4. D) Diffusion occurs even after equilibrium is reached and no net change is apparent.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.2

 

18) Diffusion does not require the cell to expend ATP. Therefore, diffusion is considered a type of

  1. A) exocytosis.
  2. B) passive transport.
  3. C) active transport.
  4. D) endocytosis.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.2

19) Osmosis can be defined as

  1. A) the diffusion of water.
  2. B) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules.
  3. C) active transport.
  4. D) the diffusion of a solute.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.2

 

20) When two aqueous solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a semipermeable membrane and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will

  1. A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower free water concentration.
  2. B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher free water concentration.
  3. C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration.
  4. D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

21) In the lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but not sucrose to make an artificial cell. The balloon is filled with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in a beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water. Which of the following will occur?

  1. A) Water will leave the balloon.
  2. B) Water will enter the balloon.
  3. C) Sucrose will leave the balloon.
  4. D) Sucrose will enter the balloon.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Global LO:  2

 

22) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment

  1. A) is isotonic to the protozoan.
  2. B) is hypotonic to the protozoan.
  3. C) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan.
  4. D) is hypertonic to the protozoan.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Global LO:  2

23) A cell that has neither a net gain of water nor net loss of water when it is immersed in a solution must be

  1. A) isotonic to its environment.
  2. B) hypertonic to its environment.
  3. C) hypotonic to its environment.
  4. D) metabolically inactive.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

24) In a hypotonic solution, an animal cell will

  1. A) lyse.
  2. B) experience turgor.
  3. C) neither gain nor lose water.
  4. D) shrivel.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

25) If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this difference?

  1. A) the expulsion of water by the plant cells central vacuole
  2. B) the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water
  3. C) the fact that plant cells are isotonic to tap water
  4. D) the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

26) In the lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but not sucrose to make an artificial cell. The balloon is filled with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in a beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water. The solution in the balloon is ________ relative to the solution in the beaker.

  1. A) isotonic
  2. B) hypotonic
  3. C) hypertonic
  4. D) hydrophilic

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Global LO:  2

27) White blood cells (WBCs) are more resistant to lysis than red blood cells (RBCs). When looking at a sample of blood for WBCs, what could you do to reduce interference from RBCs?

  1. A) Mix the blood in a salty solution to cause the RBCs to lyse.
  2. B) Mix the blood in an isotonic solution and allow the WBCs to float to the top.
  3. C) Mix the blood in a hypotonic solution, which will cause the RBCs to lyse.
  4. D) Mix the blood in a hypertonic solution, which will cause the RBCs to lyse.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Global LO:  2

 

28) A plant cell in a hypotonic solution

  1. A) becomes turgid because of an inflow of water.
  2. B) bursts because of an inflow of water.
  3. C) shrivels because of an outflow of water.
  4. D) wilts because of an outflow of water.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

29) You are adrift in the Atlantic Ocean and, being thirsty, drink the surrounding seawater. As a result,

  1. A) you quench your thirst.
  2. B) your cells become turgid.
  3. C) you dehydrate yourself.
  4. D) your cells lyse from excessive water intake.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Global LO:  2

 

30) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ________ and moves a substance ________ its concentration gradient.

  1. A) energy and transport proteins; down
  2. B) transport proteins; down
  3. C) energy and transport proteins; against
  4. D) transport proteins; against

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.4

31) The molecules responsible for membrane transport are

  1. A) steroids.
  2. B) phospholipids.
  3. C) carbohydrates.
  4. D) proteins.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

32) Which of the following statements is true for all types of passive transport?

  1. A) Proteins are needed to transport molecules across the membrane.
  2. B) The concentration gradient is the driving force.
  3. C) Only small polar molecules are able to cross the plasma membrane.
  4. D) Ions never cross the plasma membrane by passive transport.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.4, 5.5, 5.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Global LO:  2

 

33) Aquaporins

  1. A) allow water to cross the plasma membrane via facilitated diffusion.
  2. B) allow water to cross the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient.
  3. C) allow for the active transport of water.
  4. D) are found in all cells.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

34) Which of the following processes can move a solute against its concentration gradient?

  1. A) osmosis
  2. B) passive transport
  3. C) facilitated diffusion
  4. D) active transport

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

35) Which of the following is a typical feature of an ATP-driven active transport mechanism?

  1. A) The transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it.
  2. B) The transport protein is irreversibly phosphorylated as transport takes place.
  3. C) The transport protein catalyzes the conversion of ADP to ATP.
  4. D) The solute moves against the concentration gradient.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

36) Which of the following statements regarding active transport is false?

  1. A) Active transport uses ATP as an energy source.
  2. B) Active transport can move a solute against its concentration gradient.
  3. C) Active transport requires the cell to expend energy.
  4. D) Active transport is driven by the concentration gradient.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

37) Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach. This enzyme is a protein. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion?

  1. A) endocytosis
  2. B) exocytosis
  3. C) diffusion
  4. D) pinocytosis

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Global LO:  2

 

38) The process of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is

  1. A) osmosis.
  2. B) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
  3. C) pinocytosis.
  4. D) phagocytosis.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Global LO:  2

 

39) Phagocytosis is to eating as pinocytosis is to

  1. A) osmosis.
  2. B) drinking.
  3. C) chewing.
  4. D) lysis.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Global LO:  2

40) Cells acquire low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) by

  1. A) diffusion.
  2. B) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
  3. C) pinocytosis.
  4. D) phagocytosis.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.4

 

41) Kinetic energy differs from chemical energy in that

  1. A) kinetic energy is stored energy that has the potential to do work, and chemical energy is the energy of movement.
  2. B) kinetic energy can be converted into various forms of energy, whereas chemical energy can only be converted into heat.
  3. C) kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas chemical energy is the potential energy of molecules.
  4. D) chemical energy is a particular form of kinetic energy.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.5

 

42) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing

  1. A) chemical energy into kinetic energy.
  2. B) chemical energy into potential energy.
  3. C) kinetic energy into potential energy.
  4. D) kinetic energy into thermal energy.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.10

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Global LO:  2

 

43) In the reaction A B + C + heat,

  1. A) there is a net input of energy.
  2. B) the potential energy of the products is greater than that of the reactant.
  3. C) the potential energy of the products is less than that of the reactant.
  4. D) entropy has decreased.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.10

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Global LO:  2

44) Which of the following statements regarding thermodynamics is false?

  1. A) Thermodynamics is the study of energy transformations that occur in a collection of matter.
  2. B) A single cell or the planet Earth could be a thermodynamic system.
  3. C) An open system exchanges both energy and matter with its surroundings.
  4. D) An automobile engine is a closed system because it does not exchange energy and matter with its surroundings.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

 

45) According to ________, energy cannot be created or destroyed.

  1. A) Aristotles first principle
  2. B) the first law of thermodynamics
  3. C) the second law of thermodynamics
  4. D) the third law of thermodynamics

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

 

46) A steer must eat at least 100 pounds of grain to gain less than 10 pounds of muscle tissue. This illustrates

  1. A) the first law of thermodynamics.
  2. B) the second law of thermodynamics.
  3. C) that some energy is destroyed in every energy conversion.
  4. D) that energy transformations are typically 100% efficient.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.10

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.6

Global LO:  2

 

47) Which of the following direct energy transfers is impossible in living systems?

  1. A) light energy to chemical energy
  2. B) chemical energy to kinetic energy
  3. C) light energy to potential energy
  4. D) heat to light energy

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.10

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Global LO:  2

48) Living systems

  1. A) violate the first law of thermodynamics.
  2. B) violate the second law of thermodynamics.
  3. C) decrease their entropy while increasing the entropy of the universe.
  4. D) are examples of a closed system.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

 

49) Which of the following processes is endergonic?

  1. A) the burning of wood
  2. B) the synthesis of glucose from carbon dioxide and water
  3. C) the breakdown of glucose
  4. D) cellular respiration

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.11

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

 

50) What is the basic difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions?

  1. A) Exergonic reactions involve ionic bonds; endergonic reactions involve covalent bonds.
  2. B) Exergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds; endergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds.
  3. C) Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it.
  4. D) In exergonic reactions, the reactants have less chemical energy than the products; in endergonic reactions, the opposite is true.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.11

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

 

51) Which of the following processes is classified as a metabolic pathway?

  1. A) protein synthesis
  2. B) osmosis
  3. C) cell lysis
  4. D) passive diffusion

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.11

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.6

Global LO:  2

 

52) When a cell uses chemical energy to perform work, it uses the energy released from a(n) ________ reaction to drive a(n) ________ reaction.

  1. A) exergonic; endergonic
  2. B) endergonic; exergonic
  3. C) exergonic; spontaneous
  4. D) spontaneous; exergonic

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.11

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

53) Which of the following statements about the ATP molecule is true?

  1. A) It contains five phosphate groups.
  2. B) Extremely stable bonds link the second and third phosphate groups.
  3. C) It contains the sugar glucose.
  4. D) It releases energy when one phosphate group leaves ATP.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.12

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.7

 

54) The transfer of a phosphate group to a molecule or compound is called

  1. A) carboxylation.
  2. B) ionization.
  3. C) phosphorylation.
  4. D) hydrogenation.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.12

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.7

 

55) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely

  1. A) result in cell death.
  2. B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy.
  3. C) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy.
  4. D) have no effect on the cell.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.12

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Global LO:  2

 

56) ATP can be used as the cells energy exchange mechanism because

  1. A) endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the formation of ATP from ADP.
  2. B) ATP is the most energy-rich small molecule in the cell.
  3. C) endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the hydrolysis of high-energy phosphate bonds in ATP.
  4. D) ATP is a disposable form of chemical energy, used once and then discarded by the cell.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.12

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

 

57) An energy barrier

  1. A) is the amount of energy that must be produced by the reactants to end a chemical reaction.
  2. B) is higher than the activation energy of a reaction.
  3. C) prevents the spontaneous breakdown of molecules in the cell.
  4. D) can only be overcome with the use of enzymes.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.13

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

58) The energy required to initiate an exergonic reaction is called

  1. A) exergonic energy.
  2. B) endergonic energy.
  3. C) input energy.
  4. D) activation energy.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.13

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

 

59) Most of a cells enzymes are

  1. A) lipids.
  2. B) proteins.
  3. C) amino acids.
  4. D) carbohydrates.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.13

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

60) When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction,

  1. A) it lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
  2. B) it raises the activation energy of the reaction.
  3. C) it acts as a reactant.
  4. D) it is used once and discarded.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.13, 5.14

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

61) Substrates bind to an enzymes ________ site.

  1. A) allosteric
  2. B) inhibitory
  3. C) phosphate
  4. D) active

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.14

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

62) The active site of an enzyme is

  1. A) the region of a substrate that is changed by an enzyme.
  2. B) the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit the substrates of various reactions.
  3. C) the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate.
  4. D) the region of a product that detaches from the enzyme.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.14

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

63) Which of the following statements regarding enzyme function is false?

  1. A) An enzymes function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
  2. B) Enzymes are very specific for certain substrates.
  3. C) Enzymes are used up when they catalyze a chemical reaction so must be synthesized for each new chemical reaction.
  4. D) Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.14

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

64) Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true?

  1. A) Enzymes are inorganic.
  2. B) An enzymes function is unaffected by changes in pH.
  3. C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.
  4. D) All enzymes depend on protein cofactors to function.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.14

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

65) A child is brought to the hospital with a fever of 107F. Doctors immediately order an ice bath to lower the childs temperature. Which of the following statements offers the most logical explanation for this action?

  1. A) Elevated body temperature will increase reaction rates in the childs cells and overload the limited number of enzymes found in the cell.
  2. B) Elevated body temperatures may denature enzymes. This would interfere with the cells abilities to catalyze various reactions.
  3. C) Elevated body temperatures will increase the energy of activation needed to start various chemical reactions in the body. This will interfere with the ability of enzymes to catalyze vital chemical reactions.
  4. D) Elevated body temperatures cause molecules to vibrate more quickly and prevent enzymes from easily attaching to reactants. This would slow vital body reactions.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.14

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Global LO:  2

 

66) Heating inactivates enzymes by

  1. A) breaking the covalent bonds that hold the molecule together.
  2. B) removing phosphate groups from the enzyme.
  3. C) causing enzyme molecules to stick together.
  4. D) changing the enzymes three-dimensional shape.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.14

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

67) Which of the following substances could be a cofactor?

  1. A) a protein
  2. B) a polypeptide
  3. C) a zinc atom
  4. D) a ribosome

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.14

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

68) Which of the following is a coenzyme?

  1. A) zinc
  2. B) vitamin B6
  3. C) iron
  4. D) iodine

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.14

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

69) How does inhibition of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by a competitive inhibitor differ from inhibition by a noncompetitive inhibitor?

  1. A) Competitive inhibitors interfere with the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors interfere with the reactants.
  2. B) Competitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme reversibly; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to it irreversibly.
  3. C) Competitive inhibitors change the enzymes tertiary structure; noncompetitive inhibitors cause polypeptide subunits to dissociate.
  4. D) Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a different site.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.15

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

70) Bacterial production of the enzymes needed for the synthesis of the amino acid tryptophan declines with increasing levels of tryptophan and increases as tryptophan levels decline. This is an example of

  1. A) competitive inhibition.
  2. B) noncompetitive inhibition.
  3. C) feedback inhibition.
  4. D) irreversible inhibition.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.15

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Global LO:  2

71) Inhibition of an enzyme is irreversible when

  1. A) a competitive inhibitor is involved.
  2. B) a noncompetitive inhibitor is involved.
  3. C) the shape of the enzyme is changed.
  4. D) covalent bonds form between inhibitor and enzyme.

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.16

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

72) A man with a dirty cut on his hand appears at the emergency department for treatment. In order to clean the wound, the health-care provider should use

  1. A) a solution of very low pH to help kill any bacteria present.
  2. B) a solution of sterilized tap water.
  3. C) a weak (low concentration) solution of salt water.
  4. D) distilled water.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.15, 5.16

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Global LO:  2

 

73) A group of single cell organisms collected from the ocean was brought into the lab for examination. The lab assistant was concerned that the water had become full of toxic waste products and so added clean water to the culture. All of the organisms died, and when she looked at them under the microscope, all she could see were bits and pieces of them scattered throughout the water. What likely happened?

  1. A) She added water that was hypotonic to the culture of organisms, and they ruptured.
  2. B) She added sea water to which she had added too much salt, and they ruptured.
  3. C) She added water isotonic to the organisms, causing too much water to move in and out of the organism, and they ruptured.
  4. D) She added too little salt to the sea water she added, and the organisms all lost too much water and shriveled up.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Global LO:  2

5.2   Art Questions

 

1) Which figure depicts an animal cell placed in a solution hypotonic to the cell?

 

  1. A) cell A
  2. B) cell B
  3. C) cell C
  4. D) cell D

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.2

 

2) Which part of the ATP molecule breaks free of the rest when an ATP molecule is used for energy?

 

  1. A) part A
  2. B) part B
  3. C) part C
  4. D) part D

Answer:  D

Topic:  5.12

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Figure A. Changes in permeability of tubules in the kidney in response to the hormone vasopressin (AVP), which aids in osmoregulation.

 

 

Figure B. Density of aquaporins in kidney tubule cells before, during, and after administration of vasopressin.

 

 

Figure C. Permeability of tissues to water before, during, and after administration of vasopressin.

 

 

The following questions relate to these data indicating how the tubules in the kidney respond to the administration of the hormone vasopressin.

 

3) Using the data from the graphs and what you know about membranes and metabolic pathways, predict which of the following is the likely reason why actions of aquaporins in a membrane can change so rapidly.

  1. A) The number of aquaporins in the membrane is constant, but the pores have to be activated.
  2. B) Aquaporins are inserted into the membrane as needed.
  3. C) Aquaporins are only in cells that need to be permeable to water.
  4. D) Aquaporins use ATP to pump water across the membrane, and their action is limited by the metabolic pathways that produce ATP.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.7

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Global LO:  2, 3, 6

 

4) How do the data in Figure A relate to the data in Figures B and C?

  1. A) Figure B shows the method used to obtain the data in Figure A.
  2. B) Figure C is essentially a summary of the data in Figure A.
  3. C) Figure A is about water movement, and Figures B and C are about presence of aquaporins.
  4. D) Figure A has data for more than 2 hours, and Figures B and C show data all collected at the same time.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.7

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Global LO:  2, 3, 6

5.3   Scenario Questions

 

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

 

Americans spend up to $100 billion annually for bottled water (41 billion gallons). The only beverages with higher sales are carbonated soft drinks. Recent news stories have highlighted the fact that most bottled water comes from municipal water supplies (the same source as your tap water), although it may undergo an extra purification step called reverse osmosis.

 

Imagine two tanks that are separated by a membrane thats permeable to water, but not to the dissolved minerals present in the water. Tank A contains tap water and tank B contains the purified water. Under normal conditions, the purified water would cross the membrane to dilute the more concentrated tap water solution. In the reverse osmosis process, pressure is applied to the tap water tank to force the water molecules across the membrane into the pure water tank.

 

1) After the reverse osmosis system has been operating for 30 minutes, the solution in tank A would

  1. A) be hypotonic to tank B.
  2. B) be isotonic to tank B.
  3. C) be hypertonic to tank B.
  4. D) move by passive transport to tank B.

Answer:  C

Topic:  5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Global LO:  2

 

2) If you shut off the system and pressure was no longer applied to tank A, you would expect

  1. A) the water to flow from tank A to tank B.
  2. B) the water to reverse flow from tank B to tank A.
  3. C) the water to flow in equal amounts in both directions.
  4. D) the water to flow against the concentration gradient.

Answer:  B

Topic:  5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Global LO:  2

3) Water that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys is returned to the body through the action of aquaporins. Which of the following statements about water balance disorders is scientifically accurate?

  1. A) People with heart failure often swell due to too much water from excess numbers of aquaporins.
  2. B) Water retention (too much water) in pregnancy can be due to a decreased number of aquaporins.
  3. C) Kidney failure and decreased urine production are due to increased numbers of aquaporins.
  4. D) Small amounts of urine are produced by people who inherit a defect in the ability to make aquaporins.

Answer:  A

Topic:  5.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Global LO:  2, 3, 6

Campbell Biology: Concepts and Connections, 8e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 15   Tracing Evolutionary History

 

15.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) The big bang that produced the universe is thought to have occurred

  1. A) 40 to 50 billion years ago.
  2. B) 12 to 14 billion years ago.
  3. C) 4.6 billion years ago.
  4. D) 4 million years ago.

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

 

2) The earliest discovered fossils are of ________ dating back to ________ years ago.

  1. A) single-celled eukaryotes; 4.5 billion
  2. B) prokaryotes; 3.5 billion
  3. C) algae; 1 billion
  4. D) fish; 600 million

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

 

3) The findings of Pasteur and others have established that

  1. A) living organisms regularly self-assemble (arise spontaneously) from nonliving matter.
  2. B) living organisms do not arise from nonliving matter today, nor did they arise from nonlife in the past.
  3. C) advanced organisms cannot arise from nonliving matter, but simple microbial life often does arise from nonlife today.
  4. D) life does not arise from nonliving matter today, but in the conditions of early Earth, such an event could have occurred.

Answer:  D

Topic:  15.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

 

 

4) Miller was the first to show that

  1. A) amino acids and other organic molecules could have formed under conditions thought to resemble those of early Earth.
  2. B) the earliest forms of life were photosynthetic.
  3. C) eukaryotic life evolved from early prokaryotes.
  4. D) the earliest forms of life had an RNA genome.

Answer:  A

Topic:  15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

5) Which highly reactive gas was probably absent from the Earths primitive atmosphere?

  1. A) methane
  2. B) carbon dioxide
  3. C) O2(oxygen gas)
  4. D) water vapor

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

 

6) What was the probable role of oxygen gas in the early stages of lifes appearance on Earth?

  1. A) Cellular respiration, which depends on oxygen availability, provided abundant energy to the first life-forms.
  2. B) Oxygen promoted the formation of complex organic molecules through physical processes.
  3. C) Oxygen gas tends to disrupt organic molecules, so its absence promoted the formation and stability of complex organic molecules on the early Earth.
  4. D) Abundant atmospheric oxygen would have created an ozone layer, which blocked out ultraviolet light and thereby protected the earliest life-forms.

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

 

7) Miller-type experiments have shown that

  1. A) simple cells could be produced in the laboratory using a soup of small organic molecules.
  2. B) complex organic molecules can be produced by physical processes from inorganic components.
  3. C) living cells could survive in primitive Earths atmosphere.
  4. D) given the conditions of early Earth, the formation of life would still require additional materials from meteorites and asteroids.

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

 

 

8) Which of the following environments is thought to have promoted the dehydration synthesis of polypeptides and other macromolecules from smaller organic monomers on a prebiotic Earth?

  1. A) freshwater swamps and marshes
  2. B) deep-sea hydrothermal vents
  3. C) hot sand, clay, or rock along the seashore
  4. D) sediments at the bottom of the worlds oceans

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

9) A current leading hypothesis about the first system of inheritance in the earliest life-forms involves

  1. A) self-replicating DNA molecules (the DNA world hypothesis).
  2. B) self-replicating RNA molecules aided by ribozymes.
  3. C) proteins that served as templates for RNA molecules, leading to the formation of DNA.
  4. D) self-replicating polypeptides aided by ribosomes.

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

 

10) Some RNA molecules can function like enzymes. These particular enzymatic RNA molecules are called

  1. A) ribosomes.
  2. B) mRNA.
  3. C) ribozymes.
  4. D) RNase.

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.1

 

11) Which of the following options lists major events in the history of life on Earth in the proper order, from earliest to most recent?

  1. A) first prokaryotes, photosynthesis, colonization of land by plants and fungi, first eukaryotes
  2. B) first eukaryotes, photosynthesis, colonization of land by plants and fungi, first prokaryotes
  3. C) first prokaryotes, first eukaryotes, photosynthesis, colonization of land by plants and fungi
  4. D) first prokaryotes, photosynthesis, first eukaryotes, colonization of land by plants and fungi

Answer:  D

Topic:  15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.2

 

 

12) Plants and fungi first became established on land during the

  1. A) Archaean.
  2. B) Proterozoic.
  3. C) Paleozoic.
  4. D) Cenozoic.

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.2

13) If all of Earths history were compressed into an hour, humans would first appear less than

  1. A) 1 second ago.
  2. B) 10 seconds ago.
  3. C) 1 minute ago.
  4. D) 10 minutes ago.

Answer:  A

Topic:  15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.2

 

14) The technique called radiometric dating is based on

  1. A) the steady, clocklike decay of certain radioactive isotopes over time.
  2. B) the assumption that radioactive isotopes accumulate in fossils at a constant rate.
  3. C) the formation of radioactive molecules in rocks after they are laid down.
  4. D) the use of fossils of known age to determine how fast carbon-14 decays.

Answer:  A

Topic:  15.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.2

 

15) The 14C:12C ratio can be used to date fossils that are up to approximately how old?

  1. A) 100 million years
  2. B) 7 million years
  3. C) 75,000 years
  4. D) 7,500 years

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.2

 

 

16) You find the frozen remains of a woolly mammoth in an Alaskan glacier. You analyze a bit of the tusk and find that its 14C:12C ratio is about one-fourth (25%) of the baseline level typically found in living organisms. Given that the half-life of 14C is 5,730 years, when did the mammoth die?

  1. A) 5,730 years ago
  2. B) almost 12,000 years ago
  3. C) at least 25,000 years ago
  4. D) approximately 75,000 years ago

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  15.2

Global LO:  2

17) If an isotope has a half-life of 4 million years, and a fossil is 16 million years old, how much of the original isotope will be found in the fossil?

  1. A) one-half of the original amount
  2. B) one-quarter of the original amount
  3. C) one-eighth of the original amount
  4. D) one-sixteenth of the original amount

Answer:  D

Topic:  15.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  15.2

Global LO:  2

 

18) Potassium-40 can be used to date ________ that are ________ old.

  1. A) fossils; thousands of years
  2. B) volcanic rocks and associated fossils; hundreds of millions of years
  3. C) potassium-rich fossils; millions of years
  4. D) carbon-containing materials; up to 75,000 years

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.2

 

19) The Mesozoic era is often called the age of reptiles. Which of the following also occurred during this era?

  1. A) the origin of animals in the oceans
  2. B) the appearance of the first plants on land
  3. C) the appearance of the first animals (tetrapods and insects) on land
  4. D) the appearance of the first mammals and flowering plants on land

Answer:  D

Topic:  15.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.3

 

20) The earliest known land plants date to the

  1. A) Precambrian.
  2. B) Ordovician (early Paleozoic era).
  3. C) Carboniferous (late Paleozoic era).
  4. D) Jurassic (Mesozoic era).

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.3

21) Which of the following options correctly lists the varieties of life in the order that they appear in the geologic record, from earliest to most recent?

  1. A) reptiles, land arthropods, plants and fungi on land, flowering plants
  2. B) land arthropods, plants and fungi on land, flowering plants, reptiles
  3. C) plants and fungi on land, land arthropods, reptiles, flowering plants
  4. D) plants and fungi on land, land arthropods, flowering plants, reptiles

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Learning Outcome:  15.3

Global LO:  2

 

22) The earliest known flowering plants date to the

  1. A) Paleozoic.
  2. B) Triassic (early Mesozoic era).
  3. C) Cretaceous (late Mesozoic era).
  4. D) Cenozoic.

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.3

 

23) Geologists have evidence that over the past 1.5 billion years,

  1. A) Earths continents have remained essentially in their current shape and positions.
  2. B) Earths landmasses have joined into a single continent and split back apart again on three occasions.
  3. C) Earths landmasses have moved about extensively but have remained separate.
  4. D) Earths landmasses have been entirely submerged in water on three occasions.

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

 

 

24) Earths continents and seafloors together form a thin outer layer of the planet called the

  1. A) crust.
  2. B) strata.
  3. C) biosphere.
  4. D) Pangean supercontinent.

Answer:  A

Topic:  15.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

25) How is the merging of continents to form Pangaea believed to have altered Earths environments at the end of the Paleozoic era?

  1. A) It eliminated all multicellular eukaryotes, allowing evolution to start anew.
  2. B) Shallow coastal areas were drained, leading to the extinction of many marine species.
  3. C) It made the climate warmer and moister for terrestrial organisms in the center of the new landmass.
  4. D) It prompted an immediate increase in Earths biodiversity.

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

 

26) It is estimated that the modern continents began to take shape

  1. A) 1.3 million years ago.
  2. B) 650 million years ago.
  3. C) 65 million years ago.
  4. D) 6,000 years ago.

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

 

27) The Himalayas are an example of a mountain range that formed as a result of

  1. A) the collision of two continental plates.
  2. B) the separation of two continental plates.
  3. C) the buildup of sediments and conversion to rock.
  4. D) volcanic eruptions.

Answer:  A

Topic:  15.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

 

 

28) Which of the following lines of evidence suggests that lungfishes evolved while Pangaea was intact?

  1. A) Modern lungfishes on different continents show similar patterns of behavior.
  2. B) Lungfishes are found today in Africa, Australia, and South America.
  3. C) Fossil lungfishes have been found on every continent except Antarctica.
  4. D) Lungfishes are restricted to Australia and neighboring islands.

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

29) Geological evidence indicates that two landmasses became separated by a deep ocean channel 45 million years ago and have been moving apart ever since. You are studying a group of organisms that is widespread as a native part of the biota on both of the landmasses. What can you conclude about the groups evolutionary history?

  1. A) The groups ancestors were definitely present on the original landmass.
  2. B) The groups ancestors cannot have been present on the original landmass.
  3. C) If the groups ancestors could not move across the open ocean, it is very likely that they were present on the original landmass.
  4. D) The groups ancestors must have independently colonized each of the landmasses from a third location within the past 45 million years.

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.7

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

Learning Outcome:  15.4

Global LO:  2

 

30) A spot where two continental plates are sliding past one another may be prone to

  1. A) volcanoes.
  2. B) earthquakes.
  3. C) tsunamis.
  4. D) wildfires.

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

 

31) Over the past 500 million years, there have been ________ mass extinctions, and each time, at least ________ of the species on Earth became extinct.

  1. A) two; 25%
  2. B) five; 25%
  3. C) five; 50%
  4. D) twelve; 96%

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

 

32) At the end of the ________, over 96% of marine species and many terrestrial species became extinct, possibly because intense volcanic activity warmed Earths climate.

  1. A) Precambrian
  2. B) Permian
  3. C) Cretaceous
  4. D) Mesozoic

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

33) One of the strongest lines of evidence of a meteor or comet impact in the late Cretaceous is

  1. A) the extinction of the dinosaurs.
  2. B) a thin layer of potassium-40 in late Cretaceous fossil strata.
  3. C) a thin layer of iridium-enriched clay in late Cretaceous fossil strata.
  4. D) the warming of Earths climate in the late Cretaceous.

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

 

34) Scientists evaluating the Cretaceous mass extinction have concluded that

  1. A) an asteroid impact was probably the triggering event for the extinction.
  2. B) only an extraterrestrial impact could have caused such a big extinction event.
  3. C) climate change would not have been involved in producing the extinctions.
  4. D) ecological factors such as disease and competition probably caused the dinosaurs to go extinct.

Answer:  A

Topic:  15.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

 

35) Mass extinctions

  1. A) remove many species, but they are usually replaced within a million years or less by an even greater diversity of life.
  2. B) mainly serve to weed out poorly adapted organisms and make room for new, better adapted species.
  3. C) remove well-adapted species and groups from the Earth, so that it may take millions of years for species diversity to recover.
  4. D) are caused by human activity and did not occur prior to the expansion of the Earths human population.

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

 

36) Over the past 400 years, humans have documented the extinction of more than ________ species. This modern rate of species extinction is estimated to be ________ the normal extinction rate seen in the fossil record.

  1. A) 100; about the same as
  2. B) 400; about double
  3. C) 1,000; over 100 times greater than
  4. D) 10,000; at least 1 million times greater than

Answer:  C

Topic:  15.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.4

37) Scientists believe that a major factor promoting the adaptive radiation of mammals was probably

  1. A) their development of fur.
  2. B) the mass extinction of most dinosaurs, an event that opened up new ecological opportunities.
  3. C) internal fertilization.
  4. D) the origin and diversification of flowering plants.

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.5

 

38) How can the success of one group of organisms promote the adaptive radiation of a second group?

  1. A) by providing new food resources, habitats, etc. for the second group
  2. B) by competing with the second group, promoting its adaptive radiation
  3. C) by preying on the second group, which hastens its adaptation
  4. D) by filling most of the available niches, which forces the second group to evolve greater diversity

Answer:  A

Topic:  15.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.5

 

39) According to evo-devo thinking, an organisms body form can be substantially changed

  1. A) only through multiple mutations that produce a large number of new proteins.
  2. B) through mutations that change sexually selected traits.
  3. C) only when changes in the environment directly alter the major protein-coding genes in the organisms genome.
  4. D) through mutations or changes in the expression of one or a few genes that regulate development.

Answer:  D

Topic:  15.11

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.6

 

40) In the axolotl, development is altered. Adult axolotls retain features (external gills and aquatic life) that were juvenile in its ancestors, a phenomenon known as

  1. A) evo-devo.
  2. B) paedomorphosis.
  3. C) punctuated evolution.
  4. D) homology.

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.11

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.6

41) The example of ocean and lake stickleback fishes indicates that morphology can be altered

  1. A) only by changing the sequences of protein-coding genes.
  2. B) by altering the expression of a developmental gene in some parts of the body but not others.
  3. C) by environmental factors (in this case, pollution).
  4. D) by the elimination of a gene (Pitx1) from a population, which leads to loss of the trait (body armor and spines).

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.11

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.6

 

42) Anti-evolutionary thinkers sometimes argue that natural selection could not produce a complex structure like the vertebrate eye. They claim that all of the parts of the eye must have arisen at once, asking why natural selection would favor the development of part of an eye that is not yet capable of forming a focused image. Which of the following statements is consistent with a survey of eye structure in the molluscs?

  1. A) The argument has a great deal of merit. Only full-blown image-forming eyes are present in modern organisms.
  2. B) There are many intermediate stages of eye complexity that fulfill different adaptive functions.
  3. C) The vertebrate eye is the ancestral form, and other types of organisms have degenerate eyes that have lost most of their original structure and function.
  4. D) The vertebrate eye works in a way that is completely different from the eyes found in molluscs and other invertebrates.

Answer:  B

Topic:  15.12

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  15.7

 

 

43) Feathers are an example of a/an ________; they originally evolved ________.

  1. A) homology; for flight
  2. B) adaptation; for some other function and only later became adapted for flight
  3. C) exaptation; in anticipation of future use in the development of flight

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