Concepts Of Genetics 11th Edition By Klug, Cummings Test Bank

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Concepts Of Genetics 11th Edition By Klug, Cummings Test Bank

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WITH ANSWERS
Concepts Of Genetics 11th Edition By Klug, Cummings Test Bank

Chapter 2   Mitosis and Meiosis

 

1) If a typical somatic cell has 64 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are expected in each gamete of that organism?

  1. A) 8
  2. B) 16
  3. C) 32
  4. D) 64
  5. E) 128

Answer:  C

Section:  2.4

 

2) In an organism with 52 chromosomes, how many bivalents would be expected to form during meiosis?

  1. A) 13
  2. B) 26
  3. C) 52
  4. D) 104
  5. E) 208

Answer:  B

Section:  2.4

 

3) In a healthy male, how many sperm cells would be expected to be formed from (a) 400 primary spermatocytes? (b) 400 secondary spermatocytes?

  1. A) (a) 800; (b) 800
  2. B) (a) 1600; (b) 1600
  3. C) (a) 1600; (b) 800
  4. D) (a) 400; (b) 400
  5. E) (a) 100; (b) 800

Answer:  C

Section:  2.5

 

4) In a healthy female, how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100 primary oocytes? How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes?

  1. A) 200; 50
  2. B) 100; 50
  3. C) 200; 300
  4. D) 100; 100
  5. E) 50; 50

Answer:  D

Section:  2.5

 

5) The ant, Myrmecia pilosula, is found in Australia and is named bulldog because of its aggressive behavior. It is particularly interesting because it carries all its genetic information in a single pair of chromosomes. In other words, 2n = 2. (Males are haploid and have just one chromosome.) Which of the following figures would most likely represent a correct configuration of chromosomes in a metaphase I cell of a female?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)

 

  1. D)

 

  1. E)

 

Answer:  A

Section:  2.4

 

6) For the purposes of this question, assume that a G1 somatic cell nucleus in a female Myrmecia pilosula contains 2 picograms of DNA. How much DNA would be expected in a metaphase I cell of a female?

  1. A) 16 picograms
  2. B) 32 picograms
  3. C) 8 picograms
  4. D) 4 picograms
  5. E) Not enough information is provided to answer the question.

Answer:  D

Section:  2.4

7) Myrmecia pilosula actually consists of several virtually identical, closely related species, with females having chromosome numbers of 18, 20, 32, 48, 60, 62, and 64. Assume one crossed a female of species (A) with 32 chromosomes and a male of species (B) with 9 chromosomes (males are haploid, and each gamete contains the n complement). How many chromosomes would one expect in the body (somatic) cells of the female offspring?

  1. A) 4.5
  2. B) 9
  3. C) 25
  4. D) 32
  5. E) 41

Answer:  C

Section:  2.4

 

8) What is the outcome of synapsis, a significant event in meiosis?

  1. A) side-by-side alignment of nonhomologous chromosomes
  2. B) dyad formation
  3. C) monad movement to opposite poles
  4. D) side-by-side alignment of homologous chromosomes
  5. E) chiasma segregation

Answer:  D

Section:  2.4

 

9) During interphase of the cell cycle, ________.

  1. A) DNA recombines
  2. B) sister chromatids move to opposite poles
  3. C) the nuclear membrane disappears
  4. D) RNA replicates
  5. E) DNA content essentially doubles

Answer:  E

Section:  2.3

 

10) Assume that the somatic cells of a male contain one pair of homologous chromosomes (e.g., AaAb), and an additional chromosome without a homolog (e.g., W). What chromosomal combinations would be expected in the meiotic products (spermatids) of a single primary spermatocyte? (There may be more than one answer.)

Answer:  AaW, AaW, Ab, Ab  or  Aa, Aa, AbW, AbW

Section:  2.4

 

11) Trisomy 21 or Down syndrome occurs when there is a normal diploid chromosomal complement of 46 chromosomes plus one (extra) chromosome #21. Such individuals therefore have 47 chromosomes. Assume that a mating occurs between a female with Down syndrome and a normal 46-chromosome male. What proportion of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome? Justify your answer.

Answer:  One-half of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome because of 2 1 segregation of chromosome #21 at anaphase I.

Section:  2.4

12) Normal diploid somatic (body) cells of the mosquito Culex pipiens contain six chromosomes. Assign the symbols AmAp, BmBp, and CmCp to the three homologous chromosomal pairs. The m superscript indicates that the homolog is maternally derived; the p indicates a paternally derived homolog. Assume that in the genus Culex, the sex chromosomes are morphologically identical.

 

(a) For each of the cell types given below, draw and label (with reference to the symbols defined above) an expected chromosomal configuration.

 

Mitotic metaphase

Metaphase of meiosis I

Metaphase of meiosis II

 

(b) The stage at which sister chromatids go to opposite poles immediately follows which of the stages listed in (a)?

 

(c) Assuming that all nuclear DNA is restricted to chromosomes and that the amount of nuclear DNA essentially doubles during the S phase of interphase, how much nuclear DNA would be present in each cell listed above? Note: Assume that the G1 nucleus of a mosquito cell contains 3.0 10-12 grams of DNA.

 

(d) Given that the sex of Culex is determined by alleles of one gene, males heterozygous, Mm, and females homozygous, mm, illustrate a labeled chromosomal configuration (involving the symbols AmAp, BmBp, and CmCp and the M locus) in a primary spermatocyte at metaphase. Assume that the M locus is on the AmAp chromosome and that crossing over has not occurred between the M locus and the centromere.

 

Answer:

(a)

 

(b) Metaphase of meiosis II and mitotic metaphase

 

(c) 6, 6, 3

 

 

(d)

 

Section:  2.5

 

 

13) Drosophila melanogaster, the fruit fly, has a 2n chromosome number of 8. Assume that you are microscopically examining the mitotic and meiotic cells of this organism. You note that in the female, two chromosomal pairs are metacentric and that two pairs are acrocentric.

 

(a) Draw the chromosomal configurations as you would expect to see them at the stages listed:

 

Mitotic metaphase                               First polar body (metaphase)

Primary oocyte (metaphase)                Ootid(G1)

Secondary oocyte (metaphase)

 

(b) Given that the above-mentioned cells are from individuals heterozygous for two independently segregating, autosomal loci, plum eyes and curled wings, place appropriate symbols (of your designation) on chromosomes in the drawings you made in part (a) above. Assume no crossing over, and there may be more than one correct answer in some cases.

 

(c) Assuming that a somatic G2 nucleus from the individuals mentioned above contains about 8.0 picograms of DNA, how much nuclear DNA would you expect in each of the cells mentioned above?

Answer:

(a,b)

 

(c) 8, 8, 4, 4, 2

Section:  2.5

14) Down syndrome, or trisomy 21, in humans is caused by an extra copy of the relatively small, acrocentric chromosome #21. Including only chromosome #21, the X chromosome (medium in size and somewhat metacentric), and the Y chromosome (small and acrocentric), draw one possible array of chromosomes in the four sperm cells produced by the complete meiosis of one primary spermatocyte. For the purposes of this question, assume that males with Down syndrome produce normal ratios of sperm cells. (More than one answer is possible.)

Answer:

 

Section:  2.2, 2.5

 

15) Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome number of six. Two chromosomal pairs are telocentric, and the other pair is metacentric. Assume that the sex chromosomes are morphologically identical. Draw chromosomes as you would expect them to appear at the following stages:

 

Primary oocyte (metaphase)

Secondary spermatocyte (metaphase)

First polar body (metaphase)

Answer:

 

Section:  2.2, 2.5

 

16) The accompanying sketch depicts a cell from an organism in which 2n = 2 and each chromosome is metacentric.

 

(a) Circle the correct stage for the cell in this sketch:

anaphase of mitosis

anaphase of meiosis I

anaphase of meiosis II

telophase of mitosis

 

 

 

(b) Given that each G1 nucleus from this organism contains 16 picograms of DNA, how many picograms of chromosomal DNA would you expect in the cell shown above?

Answer:

(a) anaphase of meiosis II

(b) 16

Section:  2.2, 2.4

 

17) There is about as much nuclear DNA in a primary spermatocyte as in ________ (how many) spermatids?

Answer:  4

Section:  2.5

 

18) You may have heard through various media of an animal alleged to be the hybrid of a rabbit and a cat. Given that the cat (Felis domesticus) has a diploid chromosome number of 38 and a rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus) has a diploid chromosome number of 44, what would be the expected chromosome number in the somatic tissues of this alleged hybrid?

Answer:  41

Section:  2.3

 

19) The horse (Equus caballus) has 32 pairs of chromosomes, whereas the donkey (Equus asinus) has 31 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be expected in the somatic tissue of a mule?

Answer:  63

Section:  2.4

 

20) Name two evolutionarily significant benefits of meiosis that are not present in mitosis.

Answer:  reshuffling of homologous chromosomes and crossing over

Section:  2.4

 

 

21) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in a diploid individual cell with a chromosome number of 46? 32?

Answer:  2; 2

Section:  2.3

22) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in an individual cell that is tetraploid (4n)?

Answer:  4

Section:  2.3

 

23) The nucleolus organizer (NOR) is responsible for production of what type of cell structure?

Answer:  ribosome

Section:  2.1

 

24) Regarding the mitotic cell cycle, what is meant by a checkpoint?

Answer:  A checkpoint is the portion of a cell cycle that is sensitive to a variety of conditions that impact the eventual health of the cell or individual. Such checkpoints often restrict passage to the next event in the cell cycle.

Section:  2.3

 

25) What is meant by the term chiasma?

Answer:  areas where chromatids intertwine during meiosis

Section:  2.4

 

26) List four terms used to describe the normal morphologies, with respect to arm ratio, of eukaryotic chromosomes.

Answer:  metacentric, submetacentric, acrocentric, telocentric

Section:  2.2

 

27) Name two cellular organelles, each having genetic material, that are involved in either photosynthesis or respiration.

Answer:  chloroplasts and mitochondria

Section:  2.1

 

28) Homologous chromosomes are those that can be matched by virtue of their similar structure and function within a nucleus. Which chromosomes making up a genome do not follow the same characteristics of homology?

Answer:  sex-determining chromosomes

Section:  2.2

 

29) After which meiotic stage (meiosis I or II) would one expect monads to be formed?

Answer:  meiosis II

Section:  2.4

 

 

30) List, in order of appearance, all the cell types expected to be formed during (a) spermatogenesis and (b) oogenesis.

Answer:

(a) spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa

(b) oogonium, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte and first polar body, ootid and second polar body

Section:  2.5

 

31) List in order of occurrence the phases of (a) mitosis and (b) prophase I of meiosis.

Answer:

(a) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

(b) leptonema, zygonema, pachynema, diplonema, diakinesis

Section:  2.4

32) Two terms, reductional and equational, generally refer to which stages of meiosis (I or II)?

Answer:  meiosis I and meiosis II, respectively

Section:  2.4

 

33) In which stage of the cell cycle is G0 located?

Answer:  G1

Section:  2.3

 

34) When cells withdraw from the continuous cell cycle and enter a quiescent phase, they are said to be in what stage?

Answer:  G0

Section:  2.3

 

35) The house fly, Musca domestica, has a haploid chromosome number of 6. How many chromatids should be present in a diploid, somatic, metaphase cell?

Answer:  24

Section:  2.3

 

36) A chromosome may contain one or two chromatids in different phases of the mitotic or meiotic cell cycle.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  2.3, 2.4

 

37) If a typical G1 nucleus contains 2C (two complements) of DNA, a gamete that is haploid (n) contains 1C of DNA.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  2.4

 

38) If a typical G1 nucleus is 2n and contains 2C (two complements) of DNA, a prophase I cell is 2n and contains 4C of DNA.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  2.3

 

39) During meiosis, chromosome number reduction takes place in anaphase II.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  2.4

 

40) S phase is the part of interphase when DNA duplication takes place.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  2.3

 

41) The centromere of a chromosome separates during anaphase.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  2.3

 

42) A bivalent at pachytene contains four chromatids.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  2.4

43) The meiotic cell cycle involves two cell divisions but only one DNA replication.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  2.4

 

44) An organism with a haploid number of 10 will produce 1024 combinations of chromosomes at the end of meiosis.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  2.4

 

45) An organism with a diploid chromosome number of 46 will produce 223 combinations of chromosomes at the end of meiosis.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  2.4

 

Chapter 12   DNA Organization in Chromosomes

 

1) Viral chromosomes exist in a variety of conformations and can be made up of ________.

  1. A) protein- or lipid-coding sequences
  2. B) DNA only
  3. C) DNA or RNA
  4. D) RNA only
  5. E) DNA, RNA, or protein

Answer:  C

Section:  12.1

 

2) In E. coli, the genetic material is composed of ________.

  1. A) circular, double-stranded DNA
  2. B) linear, double-stranded DNA
  3. C) RNA and protein
  4. D) circular, double-stranded RNA
  5. E) polypeptide chains

Answer:  A

Section:  12.1

 

3) Eukaryotic chromosomes contain two general domains that relate to the degree of condensation. These two regions are ________.

  1. A) called heterochromatin and euchromatin
  2. B) uniform in the genetic information they contain
  3. C) separated by large stretches of repetitive DNA
  4. D) each void of typical protein-coding sequences of DNA
  5. E) void of introns

Answer:  A

Section:  11.4

 

4) In human chromosomes, satellite DNA sequences of about 170 base pairs in length are present in tandem arrays of up to 1 million base pairs. Found mainly in centromere regions, these DNA sequences are called ________.

  1. A) telomeres
  2. B) primers
  3. C) alphoid families
  4. D) euchromatic regions
  5. E) telomere-associated sequences

Answer:  C

Section:  12.6

 

 

5) In addition to highly repetitive and unique DNA sequences, a third category of DNA sequences exists. What is it called, and what types of elements are involved in it?

  1. A) composite DNA; telomeres and heterochromatin
  2. B) dominant DNA; euchromatin and heterochromatin
  3. C) multiple gene family DNA; hemoglobin and 5.0S RNA
  4. D) moderately repetitive DNA; SINEs, LINEs, and VNTRs
  5. E) permissive DNA; centromeres and heterochromatin

Answer:  D

Section:  12.6

6) Chromatin of eukaryotes is organized into repeating interactions with protein octomers called nucleosomes. Nucleosomes are composed of which class of molecules?

  1. A) histones
  2. B) glycoproteins
  3. C) lipids
  4. D) H1 histones
  5. E) nonhistone chromosomal proteins

Answer:  A

Section:  12.4

 

7) That some organisms contain much larger amounts of DNA than are apparently needed and that some relatively closely related organisms may have vastly different amounts of DNA is more typical in ________.

  1. A) viruses than in bacteria
  2. B) RNA viruses than in DNA viruses
  3. C) eukaryotes than in prokaryotes
  4. D) the alphoid rather than the diphloid family
  5. E) prokaryotes than in eukaryotes

Answer:  C

Section:  12.4, 12.6

 

8) Although mutations have been observed in many different genes, they have not been isolated in histones. Why does this seem reasonable? If one wanted to produce antibodies to histones, would it be an easy task? Explain your answer.

Answer:  Histones represent one of the most conserved molecules in nature because they are involved in a fundamental and important function relating to chromosome structure. Mutations are probably lethal. Since all antibody-producing organisms have essentially the same histones, it would be difficult to find an organism that produces histone antibodies, for to do so would be self-destructive.

Section:  12.4

 

9) What is unusual about the amino acid composition of histones? How is the function of histones related to the amino acid composition? Of which histones are nucleosomes composed?

Answer:  Histones contain large amounts of positively charged amino acids such as lysine and arginine. Thus, they can bind electrostatically to the negatively charged phosphate groups of nucleotides. Nucleosomes are composed of all histones except H1.

Section:  12.4

10) Describe the basic structure of a nucleosome. What is the role of histone H1?

Answer:  Nucleosomes are composed of four different histone molecules, each of which exists twice, thus forming an octomer. Histone H1 is between nucleosomes and is associated with linker DNA.

Section:  12.4

 

11) Which portion of a chromosome is typically stained when chromosome preparations are heat denatured and then treated with Giesma stain?

Answer:  centromeric regions

Section:  12.5

12) Compare and contrast the chromosome structure of viruses, bacteria, and eukaryotes.

Answer:  The amount of DNA per structure (virus particle, bacterium, cell) increases as one goes from viruses to eukaryotic cells. Viral chromosomes may be composed of single-stranded or double-stranded RNA or DNA, whereas bacterial and eukaryotic DNA is double-stranded. Bacterial DNA is considered to be a covalently closed circle; the global structure of eukaryotic chromosomes is uncertain. Although some proteins are associated with viral and bacterial DNA, the regularly spaced histones of eukaryotic chromosomes are unique.

Section:  12.1,12.4

 

13) A particular variant of the lambda bacteriophage has a DNA double-stranded genome of 51,365 base pairs. How long would this DNA be?

Answer:  One base pair is 0.34 nm; therefore: 51,365 bp 0.34 nm/bp = 17,464 nm or 17.46 m.

Section:  12.1

 

14) List the components of a nucleosome.

Answer:  Histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 exist as two types of tetramers: (H2A)2 + (H2B)2 and (H3)2 + (H4)2.

Section:  12.4

 

15) List several configurations that characterize different viral chromosomes.

Answer:  DNA (single- and double-stranded), RNA (single- and double-stranded), linear, circular

Section:  12.1

 

16) In instances in the eukaryotic genome, DNA sequences represent evolutionary vestiges of duplicated copies of genes. What are such regions called and what are their characteristics?

Answer:  Pseudogenes are duplicated copies of genes that have undergone considerable mutation and share some homology to the original gene.

Section:  12.7

 

17) What are minisatellites and microsatellites?

Answer:  Both are highly repetitive, relatively short DNA sequences.

Section:  12.6

 

 

18) Describe the chromosomal conformations of X174 and polyoma viruses.

Answer:  single-stranded DNA, circular; double-stranded DNA, circular, respectively

Section:  12.1

 

19) What similarities do bacterial chromosomes have with eukaryotic chromosomes?

Answer:  Both have double-stranded DNA and several types of proteins associated with that DNA (nucleosomes in eukaryotes and HU and H1 proteins in bacteria).

Section:  12.1, 12,2, 12.4

 

20) How does a polytene chromosome differ from a typical eukaryotic chromosome?

Answer:  Polytene chromosomes are found in a variety of tissues in the larvae of some flies and several species of protozoans and plants. A polytene chromosome contains banding patterns and is large because of repeated replications of DNA without nuclear division.

Section:  12.3

21) What are histones, and how are they arranged in nucleosomes?

Answer:  Histones include five main classes of relatively small basic proteins containing relatively large amounts of lysine and arginine. Nucleosomes are made of two each of four types of histones.

Section:  12.4

 

22) When native chromatin is digested with micrococcal nuclease, what significant result occurs?

Answer:  DNA fragments of approximately 200 base pairs in length are formed.

Section:  12.4

 

23) Briefly state what is meant by repetitive DNA.

Answer:  DNA is present in repeated sequences(GACAT)n for example.

Section:  12.6

 

24) What is meant by SINE in terms of chromosome structure? by LINE? Why are they called repetitive?

Answer:  SINE = short interspersed elements, a moderately repetitive sequence class; LINE = long interspersed elements. Multiple copies existup to 900,000 Alu, sequences for example.

Section:  12.6

 

25) How do VNTRs relate to DNA fingerprinting?

Answer:  VNTRs are variable number tandem repeats of 15 to 100 base pairs long that vary among individuals. Because each non-twin individual has a different VNTR pattern, identity of individuals is unique.

Section:  12.6

 

26) Approximately how much of the mammalian genome is composed of repetitive DNA?

Answer:  About 5% to 10% of a mammalian genome is highly repetitive; about 30% is moderately repetitive.

Section:  12.6

 

27) Briefly describe the makeup of VNTRs (variable number tandem repeats).

Answer:  VNTRs are repeating DNA sequences of about 15 to 100 base pairs long that are found within and between genes. These sequences may be repeated to give regions 1000 to 5000 bp in length. They are dispersed throughout the genome.

Section:  12.6

 

28) Chromosomal regions that represent evolutionary vestiges of duplicated copies of genes that have underdone sufficient mutations to render them untranscribable are called ________.

Answer:  pseudogenes

Section:  12.7

 

29) In the formation of nucleosomes, one histone class, H1, is not directly involved, yet it does associate with DNA to form higher level chromosomal structures. Where does this histone (H1) associate?

Answer:  in the spaces between nucleosome/DNA complexes

Section:  12.4

30) Until about 1970, mitotic chromosomes viewed under the microscope could be distinguished only by their size, positions of centromeres, and satellites in some cases. However, various staining techniques have allowed a different view of chromosomes because they allow the visualization of ________.

Answer:  bands similar to those of polytene chromosomes

Section:  12.5

 

31) What is the function of a TERRA (telomere repeat-containing RNA)?

Answer:  TERRA contributes to the heterochromatic nature of a telomere and facilitates methylation of the histone H3K9. In addition, TERRA sequences may help regulate telomerase.

Section:  12.6

 

32) In situ hybridization allows one to visualize the location of labeled RNA or DNA in a tissue or cell.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  12.6

 

33) Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  12.6

 

34) In contrast with euchromatin, heterochromatin contains more genes and is earlier replicating.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  12.6

 

35) The E. coli chromosome is circular and double-stranded DNA.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  12.1

 

 

36) Each human contains an identical set of VNTRs.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  12.6

 

37) Viral genomes are always linear, double-stranded DNA.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  12.1

 

38) An unfortunate circumstance of human chromosome methodology is that banding (natural or induced) is not possible.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  12.5

 

Chapter 26   Conservation Genetics

 

1) The genetic variation represented by plants and animals is known as ________.

  1. A) biodiversity
  2. B) conservation
  3. C) evolutionary heterosis
  4. D) contract digression
  5. E) None of the answers listed is correct.

Answer:  A

Section:  Introduction

 

2) At what levels do most scientists examine genetic diversity?

  1. A) species and kingdom
  2. B) female and male
  3. C) interspecific and intraspecific
  4. D) species A and species B
  5. E) higher and lower forms

Answer:  C

Section:  Introduction

 

3) The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) estimated that since 1900, ________% of the genetic diversity in agricultural crops had been lost.

  1. A) 20
  2. B) 30
  3. C) 50
  4. D) 75
  5. E) 90

Answer:  D

Section:  Introduction

 

4) Interspecific diversity refers to diversity ________.

  1. A) between species
  2. B) within species
  3. C) within a particular population
  4. D) within an individual
  5. E) within an isolated population

Answer:  A

Section:  Introduction

 

 

5) The shrinking of available habitat reduces populations of wild species and often also isolates them from one another. Individual populations become trapped in pockets of undeveloped land surrounded by areas of agriculture. This process is called ________.

  1. A) isolation
  2. B) stagnation
  3. C) overdevelopment
  4. D) underdevelopment
  5. E) population fragmentation

Answer:  E

Section:  26.1

6) Predominantly inbreeding species, such as those that self-fertilize, tend to have greater levels of ________ than ________ diversity, respectively.

  1. A) interpopulation; intrapopulation
  2. B) isopopulation; gametopopulation
  3. C) intrapopulation; interpopulation
  4. D) specific; interspecific
  5. E) nonmutant; mutant

Answer:  A

Section:  26.1

 

7) Which experimental technique employs the obscure bacterium Thermus aquaticus that was first discovered in a thermal pool in Yellowstone National Park?

  1. A) centrifugation
  2. B) complementation
  3. C) northern blotting
  4. D) PCR
  5. E) electrophoresis

Answer:  D

Section:  Introduction

 

8) What are allozymes?

  1. A) multiple versions of a single enzyme in a species
  2. B) multiple genes in a chromosome
  3. C) variations that are lethal in homozygotes
  4. D) variations that give a selective advantage in the heterozygous state
  5. E) multiple forms of mitochondrial DNA

Answer:  A

Section:  26.2

 

9) What is meant by the effective population size (Ne)?

Answer:  The effective population size is defined as the number of individuals in a population having an equal probability of contributing gametes to the next generation.

Section:  26.2

 

 

10) What is meant by the absolute population size (N)?

Answer:  the total number of individuals in the population

Section:  26.2

 

11) Briefly describe what is meant by a population bottleneck.

Answer:  Bottlenecks occur when a population or species is reduced to a few reproducing individuals whose offspring then increase in numbers over subsequent generations to reestablish the population.

Section:  26.2

 

12) After a population or species experiences a bottleneck, what might be expected in terms of biodiversity in the survivors?

Answer:  Biodiversity will be reduced.

Section:  26.2

13) When a new population, derived from a small subset of individuals, has significantly less genetic diversity than the original population, it is said to be exhibiting a(n) ________.

Answer:  founder effect

Section:  26.2

 

14) When the number of breeding individuals is small, there is a high likelihood of genetic drift. One likely result is ________.

Answer:  fixation of alleles

Section:  26.3

 

15) What is measured by the inbreeding coefficient (F)?

Answer:  F measures the probability that two alleles of a given gene in an individual are derived from a common ancestral gene.

Section:  26.2

 

16) Briefly describe the common negative aspect of inbreeding depression.

Answer:  loss of heterozygosity and an increased homozygosity of deleterious alleles

Section:  26.3

 

17) The number of deleterious alleles present in the gene pool of a population is referred to as the ________.

Answer:  genetic load

Section:  26.3

 

18) The gradual exchange of alleles between two populations brought about by the dispersal of gametes or the migration of individuals is called ________.

Answer:  gene flow

Section:  26.2

 

 

19) The loss of previously existing genetic diversity from a population or a species is referred to as ________.

Answer:  genetic erosion

Section:  26.4

 

20) Briefly describe the difference between ex situ conservation and in situ conservation.

Answer:  Ex situ conservation involves the removal of organisms from their original habitat to an artificially maintained location; in situ conservation deals with organisms in their original habitat.

Section:  26.5

 

21) The strategy of boosting numbers of organisms in a declining population by transplantation of the same species collected from more numerous populations elsewhere is called ________.

Answer:  population augmentation

Section:  26.5

 

22) Describe a potential problem associated with population augmentation.

Answer:  Outbreeding depression can occur because the progeny of crosses between the native and introduced species may be less fit for the native environment.

Section:  26.5

23) Interspecific diversity and intraspecific diversity provide an assessment of essentially identical parameters.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  Introduction

 

24) Genetic variation within populations can be measured as the frequency of individuals in the population that are heterozygous at a given locus or as the number of different alleles at a locus that are present in the gene pool.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  26.1

 

25) Population fragmentation results from conditions that reduce habitats and trap individual populations in undeveloped land surrounded by areas of developed land.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  26.3

 

26) Intrapopulation genetic diversity increases under prolonged conditions of population fragmentation.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  26.1

 

27) DNA profiles can be used to detect and quantify genetic differences between individuals.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  26.1

 

 

28) Restriction enzyme polymorphisms allow DNA profiling through the use of electrophoresis.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  26.1

 

29) DNA fingerprinting can be applied to problems involving endangered species because, with the DNA fingerprint, systems of migration, breeding, and heterozygosity can be assessed.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  26.1

 

30) Allozyme analysis allows an investigator an opportunity to determine the sequence of a particular stretch of DNA.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  26.2

 

31) The effective population size is usually greater than the absolute population size.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  26.2, 26.3

 

32) Population bottlenecks are generally beneficial to a species because they provide an opportunity to weed out weaker alleles.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  26.2

 

33) Inbreeding usually increases the heterozygosity of specific genes in a population.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  26.2

34) The founder effect generally results in an increase in heterozygosity.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  26.2

 

35) Genetic drift usually leads to a loss of genetic variation.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  26.3

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