Core Concepts in Pharmacology 3rd ed By Holland Adams-Test Bank

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Core Concepts in Pharmacology 3rd ed By Holland Adams-Test Bank

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WITH ANSWERS
Core Concepts in Pharmacology 3rd ed By Holland Adams-Test Bank

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) A student nurse asks what the difference between a therapeutic class and a pharmacologic class is.
The best response would be:
A) Therapeutic classification is how the medication produces an effect in the body, where
pharmacologic classification is how a medication works clinically.
B) Pharmacologic classification is how the medication produces an effect in the body, where
therapeutic classification is how a medication works clinically.
C) Therapeutic classification is how addictive a medication is, where pharmacologic
classification is how the medication produces an effect in the body.
D) There are no differences between therapeutic and pharmacologic classes.
1)
2) A drug is labeled used for minor skin irritations. This is an example of which classification?
A) Function B) Usefulness C) Pharmacologic D) Therapeutic
2)
3) A nursing instructor is teaching fundamental pharmacological content. In helping the students
become comfortable with this material, the instructor suggests that they focus initially on
familiarizing themselves with the:
A) Trade names. B) Adverse effects.
C) Prototype. D) Generic names.
3)
4) The original, well-understood drug model from which other medications in a pharmacologic class
have been developed is known as:
A) The prototype drug. B) A generic drug.
C) A proprietary drug. D) A combination drug.
4)
5) Which of the following statements is true regarding prototype drugs?
A) A nurse can apply understanding of the effects of a prototype drug to other drugs in the
same class.
B) The mechanism of action is different for the prototype drug than for other drugs in the same
class.
C) The most commonly used drug in a specific class is always the most widely prescribed drug.
D) Understanding the effects of the prototype drug does not help the nurse to understand the
effects of other drugs in the same class.
5)
6) A generic drug takes 60 minutes to produce a therapeutic effect; the brand name drug takes the
same amount of time to produce the same effect. This is a measure of the drugs:
A) Efficacy. B) Therapeutic effect.
C) Adverse effect. D) Bioavailability.
6)
7) The physiologic ability of the drug to reach its target cells and produce its effect is known as:
A) Therapeutic effect. B) Efficacy.
C) Bioavailability. D) Adverse effect.
7)
8) Which of the following is a trade name?
A) Anticoagulant B) Loop diuretic
C) Benadryl D) Calcium channel blocker
8)
1
9) When a new drug is developed, it cannot be made by other pharmaceutical companies for 17 years
after the new drug application (NDA) because:
A) It takes 17 years for all pharmaceutical companies to develop a generic version of the drug.
B) This allows the pharmaceutical company to earn back the money spent to develop the drug.
C) Animal testing must continue for 10 years, then 7 years of human clinical trials, for a drug to
be approved.
D) It will take 17 years of clinical trials to approve the drug.
9)
10) A client asks the nurse why the physician often refers to medications by the generic name instead
of by the brand name. The best response by the nurse would be:
A) There is only one generic name for each medication, but there are often many brand names.
B) The physician prefers to use a more technical-sounding name for medications.
C) The client needs to ask the physician to explain why medications have so many different
names.
D) The pharmacy will only accept a prescription written with the generic name.
10)
11) Which of the following is not a reason why generic names are preferred over chemical or trade
names?
A) Chemical names are often complicated and difficult to remember.
B) There might be multiple trade names for a drug.
C) The generic name can consistently be matched to the active ingredients.
D) The generic name is always a shortened version of the chemical name.
11)
12) Sometimes medications are placed on a negative formulary list, which means the pharmacist must:
A) Dispense either the generic or trade name medication.
B) Verify the order with the physician a second time before dispensing the trade name
medication.
C) Dispense only the generic medication.
D) Dispense only the trade name medication.
12)
13) A controlled substance is a drug that:
A) Is always called to the pharmacy by the practitioner.
B) Requires both a written prescription and a telephone call from the prescribing practitioner.
C) Is regulated under the Controlled Substances Act, and may have many restrictions placed on
ordering or refilling this medication.
D) Does not require a prescription to purchase.
13)
14) Some drugs are frequently abused, and cause overwhelming feeling that drives someone to use a
drug repeatedly, which is known as:
A) Psychological dependence. B) Dependence.
C) Addiction. D) Physical dependence.
14)
15) A drug that requires a written prescription for refill would belong to which category?
A) II B) I C) III D) IV
15)
16) Which of the following would be categorized as Schedule II drugs? Select all that apply.
A) Tylenol with codeine B) Morphine
C) Methadone D) Valium
16)
2
17) A drug with limited or no therapeutic use would belong to which schedule?
A) I B) X C) III D) V
17)
18) Scheduled drugs are classified by their potential for abuse. Which of the following classifications
has the highest potential for abuse?
A) V B) III C) I D) II
18)
19) Scheduled drugs are classified by their potential for abuse. Which of the following classifications
has the lowest potential for abuse?
A) II B) I C) V D) III
19)
20) Drugs that have the potential for abuse are regulated by which act in Canada?
A) There are no such restrictions in the Narcotic Control Act.
B) The Controlled Drugs and Substance Act
C) Part III, Schedule G, of the Canadian Food and Drugs Act
D) Part IV, Schedule H of the Canadian Food and Drugs Act
20)
21) In Canada, medications are classified under a three-schedule system. Which of the following does
not fall under Schedule I?
A) Narcotic drugs B) All prescription drugs
C) All nonprescription drugs D) Controlled drugs
21)
22) A pregnant woman with a life-threatening condition must take medication that can cause harm to
her fetus. What is the safety category that this medication most likely represents?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
22)
23) Which of the following medications would have the greatest risk to a fetus if given to a pregnant
client?
A) Potassium chloride (K-Lor)
B) Ranitidine (Zantac)
C) Estrogen with progesterone (Ortho Novum)
D) Warfarin (Coumadin)
23)
24) Which of the following medications would have the least risk to a fetus if given to a pregnant
client?
A) Estrogen with progesterone (Ortho Novum)
B) Warfarin (Coumadin)
C) Potassium chloride (K-Lor)
D) Ranitidine (Zantac)
24)
25) A medication that is a teratogen is:
A) A non-narcotic pain reliever.
B) A controlled substance.
C) One that will harm a developing fetus or embryo.
D) A medication used to treat bacterial infections.
25)
3
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED2
1) B
2) D
3) C
4) A
5) A
6) D
7) C
8) C
9) B
10) A
11) D
12) D
13) C
14) C
15) A
16) B, C
17) A
18) C
19) C
20) B
21) C
22) D
23) C
24) C
25) C
4

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The nurse is caring for a client with depression. The nurse recognizes which of the following to be
symptoms of depression? Select all that apply.
A) Lack of energy B) Increased energy
C) Feelings of despair D) Sleep disturbances
1)
2) The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder exhibiting the following symptoms:
insomnia, exaggerated confidence, attention seeking, and is easily agitated. The nurse knows these
symptoms are signs of:
A) Mania. B) Depression.
C) Overdose of barbiturates. D) Side effects of lithium (Eskalith).
2)
3) The clients asks the nurse what causes depression. The best answer by the nurse is:
A) Most people are not really depressed. They are just looking for attention.
B) Most people who are depressed suffer from seasonal affective disorder.
C) There are many causes, including genetics, hormone changes, grief, substance abuse, and
prescription drugs.
D) The main cause of depression is substance abuse.
3)
4) A client is being treated for reoccurring severe depressive illness. The nurse expects the client to
receive which type of treatment?
A) Medication only B) Grief counseling
C) Medication and psychotherapy D) Psychotherapy only
4)
5) The physician has ordered a tricyclic antidepressant for a client with biological depression. The
nurse expects to find which of the following medications to be ordered for the client?
A) Fluoxetine (Prozac) B) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
C) Amitriptyline (Elavil) D) Citalopram (Celexa)
5)
6) The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been taking a tricyclic antidepressant
for several weeks. The nurse knows the most common adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressants is:
A) Orthostatic hypotension. B) Bradycardia.
C) Sedation. D) Dry mouth.
6)
7) The nurse explains to a client that ________ have become the drugs of choice in treating
depression.
A) SNRIs B) MAOIs C) TCAs D) SSRIs
7)
8) The nurse should instruct the client taking SSRIs:
A) That depression should improve immediately.
B) That there are few side effects of SSRIs.
C) To take the medication at bedtime.
D) That full therapeutic effect takes one month.
8)
1
9) The nurse instructs the client prescribed a SSRI to: (Select all that apply.)
A) Drink adequate amounts of fluid. B) Restrict fluid intake.
C) Avoid laxatives and stool softeners. D) Add dietary fiber.
9)
10) A child diagnosed with ADHD would most likely exhibit which of the following symptoms? Select
all that apply.
A) Excessive talking
B) Easily distracted
C) Able to focus on a task for an extended period of time
D) Impulsiveness
10)
11) The client receives amitriptyline (Elavil). What is a priority for the nurse to teach this client at
discharge?
A) Begin a low-carbohydrate diet.
B) Do not rapidly stand up or change positions.
C) Do not take aspirin with this drug.
D) Avoid green, leafy vegetables.
11)
12) The client receives paroxetine (Paxil), and tells the nurse that sexual dysfunction has become a
problem. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) Your depression is of primary concern right now.
B) You should stop the medication right away.
C) This side effect usually subsides in a few months.
D) This is common. Please discuss it with your physician.
12)
13) The client receives sertraline (Zoloft) and lithium. Which assessment data are most indicative of a
potentially serious complication?
A) Fever and lack of muscular coordination B) Nausea and headache
C) Anxiety and insomnia D) Dry mouth and constipation
13)
14) The client receives phenelzine (Parnate). Which dietary components would indicate the best
planning by the nurse and client? Select all that apply.
A) Tomato soup B) Grilled chicken breast
C) Bologna sandwich D) Avocado salad
14)
15) The nurse evaluates a client taking a high daily dose of duloxetine (Cymbalta) for which of the
following signs and symptoms? Select all that apply.
A) Increased libido B) Suicidal ideation
C) Liver failure D) Seizures
15)
16) A client has just begun therapy with lithium (Eskalith). The nurse notices the serum level of lithium
for this client is 1.3 m/Eq/L. The nurse knows the normal range is:
A) 1.53.0 m/Eq/L. B) 0.61.5 m/Eq/L.
C) 3.04.5 m/Eq/L. D) 0.10.6 m/Eq/L.
16)
2
17) A client receiving lithium (Eskalith) for bipolar disorder would be at risk for increased lithium
toxicity if it were prescribed with:
A) Potassium citrate.
B) Diuretics.
C) There are no drug interactions with lithium (Eskalith).
D) Sodium bicarbonate.
17)
18) A client is taking Saint Johns wort and an SSRI. The nurse observes the client for which of the
following symptoms? Select all that apply.
A) Confusion B) Hypotension C) Mania D) Renal failure
18)
19) The nurse is caring for a client who has not responded to several antidepressant drugs. The nurse
expects the physician to order which of the following classifications of medication for this client?
A) MAOI B) TCA C) SNRI D) SSRI
19)
20) The nurse instructs the client receiving MAOIs to avoid:
A) All dairy products. B) Foods containing tyramine.
C) All physical activity. D) Calcium channel blockers.
20)
21) A child has been ordered the most commonly prescribed medication for ADHD. The nurse expects
________ to be prescribed for this client.
A) Pemoline (Cylert) B) Methamphetamide (Desoxyn)
C) Methylphenidate (Ritalin) D) Clonidine (Catapres)
21)
22) The client is in a manic phase of bipolar disorder, and is receiving lithium. What will the nurse
expect to assess when the clients lithium level is 0.3 m/Eq/L?
A) Vomiting and diarrhea B) Hyperactivity
C) Calm behavior D) Sedation
22)
23) The mother of an 8-year-old client who is receiving methylphenidate (Ritalin) tells the nurse that
her child has not slept well since being started on this drug. Which assessment data question is a
priority for this client?
A) Is you child having problems at school?
B) Does your child have sleep apnea?
C) Do you give the medication with food?
D) What time do you give your child the medication?
23)
24) Which statement is priority teaching at the time of discharge for the client who receives
imipramine (Tofranil)?
A) You can stop the medication when you are no longer feeling depressed.
B) Please notify your health care provider of any changes in urine quantity or quality.
C) You must maintain a normal intake of salt while on this medication.
D) You will need to maintain a low-fat diet while on this medication.
24)
25) The client is receiving phenelzine (Parnate). She comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she
consumed two glasses of Chianti wine at lunchtime. What is the nurses priority action?
A) Discuss how wine can increase the symptoms of depression.
B) Arrange for admittance to the psychiatric unit.
C) Discuss the effects of wine on the action of antidepressants.
D) Assess the clients blood pressure.
25)
3
26) The nurse has been doing medication education for the client receiving lithium (Eskalith). Which
statement by the client indicates that teaching has been effective?
A) I can stop taking my lithium when my moods are stable.
B) I need to call my physician if I get sick with vomiting and diarrhea.
C) I need to restrict my intake of salt while I am taking lithium.
D) I dont need to have by blood checked anymore after I leave the hospital.
26)
4
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED10
1) A, C, D
2) A
3) C
4) C
5) C
6) A
7) D
8) D
9) A, D
10) A, B, D
11) B
12) D
13) A
14) A, B
15) B, C, D
16) B
17) B
18) A, C, D
19) A
20) B
21) C
22) B
23) D
24) B
25) D
26) B
5

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) ________ is the stopping of blood flow, an essential mechanism protecting the body from both
external and internal injury.
A) Coagulation B) Hemostasis C) Hemostatics D) Thrombolytic
1)
2) ________ is a complex series of steps that begins when the injured cells release a chemical called
prothrombin activator, or prothrombinase.
A) Hemostatics B) Hemostasis
C) Thrombolytic D) The coagulation cascade
2)
3) A client asks the nurse to describe conditions that require coagulation-modifying medications. The
nurse should include which of the following disorders? Select all that apply.
A) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) B) Angina
C) Headache D) Myocardial infarction
3)
4) A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant, and asks the nurse to explain why this medication
has been prescribed. The nurse replies:
A) These medications are used to dissolve such life-threatening clots.
B) These medications are used to prevent the formation of clots.
C) These medications are used to prevent clot formation in arteries.
D) These medications inhibit the normal removal of fibrin, thus keeping the clot in place for a
longer period of time.
4)
5) A client has been prescribed a thrombolytic, and asks the nurse to explain why this medication has
been prescribed. The nurse replies:
A) These medications are used to prevent the formation of clots.
B) These medications are used to dissolve such life-threatening clots.
C) These medications are used to prevent clot formation in arteries.
D) These medications inhibit the normal removal of fibrin, thus keeping the clot in place for a
longer period of time.
5)
6) A client has been prescribed an antiplatelet drug, and asks the nurse to explain why this
medication has been prescribed. The nurse replies:
A) These medications are used to prevent clot formation in arteries.
B) These medications inhibit the normal removal of fibrin, thus keeping the clot in place for a
longer period of time.
C) These medications are used to prevent the formation of clots.
D) These medications are used to dissolve such life-threatening clots.
6)
7) The physician prescribes a newer antithrombin medication that is given subcutaneously 15
minutes prior to hip replacement surgery for prophylaxis of DVT. The nurse knows this
medication is:
A) Desirudin (Iprivask). B) Argatroban (Acova).
C) Lepirudin (Refludan). D) Bivalirudin (Angiomax).
7)
1
8) The client is receiving heparin (Heplock). The nurse knows to monitor which of the following
laboratory results to evaluate therapeutic response?
A) BNP B) PT C) PT and INR D) aPTT
8)
9) The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse knows to monitor which of the following
laboratory results to evaluate therapeutic response?
A) PT and INR B) BNP C) aPTT D) PT
9)
10) A client is receiving heparin (Heplock) therapy, and serious hemorrhage occurs. Which medication
should the nurse administer to reverse the effects of heparin (Heplock)?
A) Desirudin (Iprivask) B) Protamine sulfate
C) Potassium D) Vitamin K
10)
11) A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy has a INR of 5.6. Which medication would the
nurse expect the physician to order to reverse the warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) Desirudin (Iprivask) B) Vitamin K
C) Potassium D) Protamine sulfate
11)
12) The nurse caring for a client receiving heparin (Heplock) monitors the patient for which serious
complication that occurs in up to 30% of patients taking the drug?
A) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
B) Angioedema
C) Tachycardia
D) Bradycardia
12)
13) A client taking warfarin (Coumadin) should be instructed to avoid herbal supplements such as
green tea, ginkgo, feverfew, garlic, cranberry, chamomile, and ginger because these could:
A) Decrease the effect of the warfarin (Coumadin).
B) Cause severe headache.
C) Increase the risk of bleeding.
D) Cause severe hypotension.
13)
14) A client is taking aspirin (ASA), and asks the nurse how long the anticoagulant effect of a single
dose of aspirin can last. The nurse replies:
A) The anticoagulant effect of a single dose of aspirin can last for as long as a week.
B) The anticoagulant effect of a single dose of aspirin can last for as long as a day.
C) The anticoagulant effect of a single dose of aspirin can last for as long as 12 hours.
D) The anticoagulant effect of a single dose of aspirin can last for as long as a month.
14)
15) A client has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse instructs the client that which of the
following types of drugs can increase the risk for bleeding? Select all that apply.
A) NSAIDs B) Some antibiotics
C) Anticoagulants D) Thrombolytic agents
15)
16) Alteplase (Activase) must be given within ________ hours of the onset of symptoms of MI and
within ________ hours of thrombotic stroke to be effective.
A) 24; 12 B) 3; 6 C) 12; 24 D) 6; 3
16)
17) ________ are used to prevent and treat excessive bleeding following surgical procedures.
A) Anticoagulants B) Antiplatelets C) Hemostatics D) Thrombolytics
17)
2
18) A client has been ordered a thrombolytic medication. The nurse knows to obtain a comprehensive
medical history because:
A) Thrombolytics cannot be given to a patient with a history of asthma.
B) Thrombolytics will stop bleeding.
C) Thrombolytics are contraindicated in patients with active bleeding or with a history of recent
trauma.
D) Many patients are allergic to this medication.
18)
19) Which of the following is not a reason why a client would be prescribed a thrombolytic drug?
A) Postoperative bleeding B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) D) Acute MI
19)
20) The three primary subclasses of antiplatelet agents are: (Select all that apply.)
A) Thrombolytics.
B) Aspirin (ASA).
C) Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor blockers.
D) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor blockers.
20)
21) The nurse is caring for a client receiving an ADP receptor blocker. The nurse knows which of the
following are ADP receptor blockers? Select all that apply.
A) Heparin (Heplock) B) Clopidogrel (Plavix)
C) Warfarin (Coumadin) D) Ticlopidine (Ticlid)
21)
22) A client states that the physician is going to prescribe an antiplatelet agent. The nurse knows that
which of the following medications are antiplatelet agents? Select all that apply.
A) Warfarin (Coumadin) B) Cilostazol (Pletal)
C) Pentoxifylline (Trental) D) Heparin (Heplock)
22)
23) A client has been prescribed a subcutaneous anticoagulant. The nurse knows that which of the
following are given subcutaneously? Select all that apply.
A) Dalteparin (Fragmin) B) Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
C) Lepirudin (Refludan) D) Warfarin (Coumadin)
23)
24) A client asks the nurse what the most common side effect of anticoagulant therapy is. The nurse
replies:
A) Bleeding. B) Hypotension. C) Headache. D) Ataxia.
24)
3
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED20
1) B
2) D
3) A, B, D
4) B
5) B
6) A
7) A
8) D
9) A
10) B
11) B
12) A
13) C
14) A
15) A, C, D
16) D
17) C
18) C
19) A
20) B, C, D
21) B, D
22) B, C
23) A, B
24) A
4

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The three layers of the skin are the: (Select all that apply.)
A) Dermis. B) Epidermis.
C) Stratum corneum. D) Hypodermis.
1)
2) Age-related changes in the skin include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Fragile epidermis B) Loss of elasticity
C) Increase in skin tumors D) Loss of hair follicles
2)
3) Symptoms associated with stress or injury to the skin include which of the following? Select all that
apply.
A) Sores and lesions B) Crusty and cracked areas
C) Blisters and calluses D) Infections and infestations
3)
4) The nurse is educating the mother of an infant with dermatitis regarding long-term effects of the
condition. A correct statement for the nurse to pass on to the mother is:
A) Approximately 60 percent of infants with dermatitis have symptoms into adulthood.
B) Because your child has dermatitis now, your child will outgrow the symptoms.
C) Once the dermatitis is clear, your child will have no further problems.
D) If you use the treatment as prescribed, the dermatitis will be cured.
4)
5) A mother of a school-aged child asks the nurse why her child continues to have itching with no
sign of mites. The nurse gives which of the following responses?
A) You will have to switch to something else besides Lindane (Kwell).
B) Itching is common, even after the mites have been killed.
C) Lindane (Kwell) usually works, but your child must need something stronger.
D) The mites are too small to see, and treatment should be continued.
5)
6) The most effective treatment for sunburn is:
A) Prevention with use of sunscreens, sunglasses, and sufficient clothing.
B) Lotions to prevent further irritation to the skin.
C) Tetanus toxoid to prevent infection.
D) Anesthetics for pain reduction.
6)
7) A client with rosacea asks how to limit exacerbation of symptoms. The nurse recommends:
A) Using drugs to inhibit bacterial growth.
B) Use of burdock root as a skin detoxifier.
C) Keeping the skin moist.
D) Eliminating alcohol and spicy foods from the diet.
7)
8) The client has scabies. The nurse assesses which anatomic areas common for this skin disorder?
A) Waist and armpit areas B) Any skin area
C) Head and groin D) Across the shoulders and neck area
8)
9) ________ are pharmacological agents that kill mites.
A) Psoralens B) Antibiotics C) Pediculicides D) Scabicides
9)
1
10) The nurse instructs the mother of a school-age child with lice to prevent reinfestation by doing
which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) All material coming in close contact with the patient should be washed or treated with the
medication.
B) Inspect hair shafts daily for at least 1 week after treatment.
C) Cut the hair of the child to 1 inch.
D) Comb the infested area after the hair has been dried.
10)
11) Benzocaine (Americaine) is used to treat which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Second-degree burns B) Pruritus
C) Sunburn D) Insect bites
11)
12) A client with acne asks the nurse which OTC medication is used to treat acne. The nurse replies:
A) Benzoyl peroxide (Benzaclin). B) Adapalene (Differin).
C) Doxycycline (Doryx). D) Tretinoin (Retin-A).
12)
13) A client has been prescribed tretinoin (Retin-A). The nurse advises the client to do which of the
following? Select all that apply.
A) Do not use this medication if pregnant. B) Avoid exposure to the sun.
C) Increase intake of vitamin A. D) Avoid using vitamin C supplements.
13)
14) A client is being treated with corticosteroids for contact dermatitis. The client asks how to avoid
contact dermatitis. The nurse explains contact dermatitis can be caused by which of the following?
Select all that apply.
A) Jewelry B) Peanuts C) Latex D) Perfume
14)
15) Which of the following are systemic medications used to treat psoriasis? Select all that apply.
A) Betamethasone (Diprolene) B) Etretinate (Tegison)
C) Acitreten (Soriatane) D) Dexamethasone (Decaspray)
15)
16) Which of the following is not a treatment for psoriasis?
A) Topical glucocorticoids B) Immunosuppressant medications
C) Antibiotics D) Emollients
16)
17) A client with scabies has been prescribed a medication that should be rinsed from the body within
10 minutes after being applied. The nurse knows the medication prescribed is:
A) Crotamiton (Eurax). B) Pyrethrin (Rid).
C) Permethrin (Nix). D) Malathion (Ovide).
17)
18) A client taking tretinoin (Retin-A) should have blood drawn to monitor which of the following?
Select all that apply.
A) Serum creatinine B) Serum glucose
C) Liver function D) Serum triglyceride
18)
19) Periodic monitoring of which of the following is indicated for the client taking
isotretinoin/13-cis-retinoic acid (Accutane)?
A) Blood levels of vitamin A B) Heart rate
C) Triglycerides D) Blood pressure
19)
2
20) The client using amcinonide (Cyclocort ) should be instructed to:
A) Monitor for irritation and redness, which are common effects with initial application.
B) Keep a thin layer of medication on the area at all times.
C) Cover the affected area with an adhesive bandage after application with medicine.
D) Apply the medication to affected areas.
20)
21) Which is a medication used to treat sickle-cell anemia and also psoriatic symptoms?
A) Adapalene (Differin) B) Calcipotriene (Dovonex)
C) Tarzarotene (Tazorac) D) Hydroxyurea (Hydrea)
21)
22) A client taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for seizures has also been started on
isotretinoin/13-cis-retinoic acid (Accutane). The nurse recognizes that the client:
A) Might have increased seizure activity.
B) Will need to monitor blood glucose levels.
C) Will have elevated triglycerides.
D) Will have increased risk for cardiovascular disease.
22)
23) Which of the following is a topical therapy for psoriasis that may be used without other
medications for psoriasis?
A) Methotrexate (Amethopterin) B) Tar treatment (coal tar)
C) Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) D) Hydroxyurea (Hydrea)
23)
24) UVB (ultraviolet B) and UVA (ultraviolet A) phototherapy are techniques used in cases of severe
psoriasis. Which type is less hazardous?
A) Both are the same. B) Neither is hazardous.
C) UVA (ultraviolet A) D) UVB (ultraviolet B)
24)
25) Psoralens are oral or topical agents that, when exposed to UV light:
A) Increase the size of plaques.
B) Produce a photosensitive reaction.
C) Inhibit DNA synthesis and arrest abnormal cell growth.
D) Increase cell growth.
25)
3
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED34
1) A, B, D
2) A, B, D
3) A, B, C, D
4) A
5) B
6) A
7) D
8) A
9) D
10) A, B, D
11) B, C, D
12) A
13) A, B
14) A, C, D
15) B, C
16) C
17) C
18) B, C, D
19) C
20) D
21) D
22) A
23) B
24) D
25) B
4

 

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