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Emergency Care 13th Edition By Daniel J. Limmer -Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? 1)
A) Healthcare practitioners B) Immunosuppressed patients
C) Uranium mine workers D) Current and former smokers
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Healthcare practitioners who are healthy and take proper body
substance isolation precautions are not at the greatest risk for contracting or
B) CORRECT. Those at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting TB are people
who have suppressed immune systems.
C) INCORRECT. Although inherently dangerous, exposure to uranium does not
increase a persons risk of contracting tuberculosis.
D) INCORRECT. Smoking does not create the greatest risk for contracting
2) You observe a coworker telling a terminal cancer patient and her family, Everything will be okay.
Making false reassurances is considered:
A) ambiguous and uncertain. B) caring and supportive.
C) naive and uncompassionate. D) professional and discreet.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. False reassurances (such as the statement in the situation described)
are usually direct and certain.
B) INCORRECT. It is neither caring nor supportive to assure a good outcome in this
C) CORRECT. Offering false reassurance will only be irritating or convey the
impression that you do not really understand.
D) INCORRECT. The coworker making false reassurances is certainly not being
professional and discretion doesnt apply.
3) Ones cognitive ability refers to his or her ability to do which of the following? 3)
A) Think and solve problems B) Control his or her emotions
C) Use fine motor skills D) Adapt to stress
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Thinking and problem-solving is referred to as cognitive ability.
B) INCORRECT. Control of ones emotions is not related to cognitive ability.
C) INCORRECT. Cognitive ability does not refer to physical action or skills.
D) INCORRECT. Stress adaptation is unrelated to cognitive ability.
4) Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern
for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment?
A) Hepatitis B B) Hepatitis A C) AIDS D) Tuberculosis
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Hepatitis B has been found to live for many days in dried blood spills,
posing a risk of transmission long after many other viruses would have died.
B) INCORRECT. Hepatitis A does not live for long periods in dried blood.
C) INCORRECT. The virus that causes AIDS does not live long outside of the body.
D) INCORRECT. Tuberculosis cannot live for extended periods in dried blood.
5) The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following
A) The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B.
B) The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease.
C) The patient has a respiratory illness.
D) The providers hands come into contact with fecal matter.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. If soap and water are not immediately available, the CDC
recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer after treating a hepatitis B
B) INCORRECT. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are recommended after contact with
patients who have bloodborne diseases.
C) INCORRECT. After caring for a patient with a respiratory illness, an alcohol-based
hand cleaner would be an effective way for the provider to sanitize her hands.
D) CORRECT. The CDC considers alcohol-based hand sanitizers to be effective except
for when hands are visibly soiled or when anthrax is present.
6) Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? 6)
A) The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B.
B) Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS.
C) HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate.
D) HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Whereas the hepatitis B virus can survive for days in dried blood,
HIV does not survive well outside of the human body.
B) INCORRECT. Although there is currently no cure, there are drugs available that
slow HIV from progressing into AIDS.
C) INCORRECT. Hepatitis B, not HIV, have positive needlesticks result in a 30
percent infection rate.
D) CORRECT. According to the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA), less than half of 1 percent of HIV positive needlesticks result in infection.
7) You are dispatched to a female with altered mental status. Once inside the home, you find a female
who appears to have been beaten unconscious. A man, who smells of alcohol, says that she is his
wife and that he does not know what happened: I just found her this way! The husband is
behaving suspiciously, appears paranoid, and is pacing erratically around the room. What would
be the safest course of action?
A) Have your partner call for help while you stay with the patient.
B) Leave the house and call for law enforcement.
C) Evacuate the patient and begin treatment.
D) Continue to question the man and begin treating the patient.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The safety of both EMTs should be the priority and leaving one in
the dangerous situation is unacceptable.
B) CORRECT. The three Rs of reacting to the danger in this situation require the
EMTs to leave, call for assistance, and plan how to proceed.
C) INCORRECT. Trying to move the unconscious patient from this potentially
dangerous situation puts the EMTs at risk.
D) INCORRECT. This is a dangerous situation for the responders to be in and staying
in it is not a safe choice.
8) The Stress Triad, or the bodys response to a stressful stimulation, is known as general ________
A) reaction B) adaptation C) incident D) resistance
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The Stress Triad does not include a general reaction syndrome.
B) CORRECT. The Stress Triad is also known as general adaptation syndrome.
C) INCORRECT. A general incident syndrome is not related to the Stress Triad.
D) INCORRECT. The bodys response to stress is not called the general resistance
9) You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first
way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT?
A) Request additional resources.
B) Ensure scene safety.
C) Utilize DOT-approved reflective safety clothing.
D) Take personal protective equipment (PPE) precautions.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Although requesting additional resources may be necessary based
on the situation, it would not be the first way to safeguard your well-being.
B) CORRECT. The first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT arriving at a
vehicle crash is make sure that the scene is safe before entering it.
C) INCORRECT. DOT-approved reflective clothing can help to keep an EMT safer
while on scene, but it wouldnt be the first way to ensure personal well-being.
D) INCORRECT. Utilizing appropriate PPE is important for personal well-being, but
its not the first way to ensure safety.
10) You are dispatched to the staging area of a terrorist-related chemical exposure. The incident
commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold zone. As an
EMT on-board an ambulance, what statement BEST describes your role?
A) Transport patients to be decontaminated. B) Transport decontaminated patients.
C) Coordinate hazmat response. D) Triage patients to be decontaminated.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. EMTs should not be transporting patients until after
B) CORRECT. As an EMT, you should not be treating or transporting patients until
after they have undergone decontamination.
C) INCORRECT. The hazmat response in this scenario has already been coordinated.
D) INCORRECT. Patients being brought to the cold zone would have already been
triaged and decontaminated.
11) Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the Stress Triad as described by the physician
A) Atrophy of the adrenal glands B) Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes
C) Amnesia for stressful events D) Bleeding gastric ulcers
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The adrenal glands will actually become enlarged (hypertrophy)
during the third stage of the Stress Triad.
B) INCORRECT. The Stress Triad can result in atrophy of the lymph nodes.
C) INCORRECT. Amnesia is not an effect of the Stress Triad.
D) CORRECT. During the third stage of the Stress Triad, Dr. Selye describes
enlargement (hypertrophy) of the adrenal glands; wasting (atrophy) of lymph
nodes; and bleeding gastric ulcers.
12) When covering a patients mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the
A) Interfering with patient communication
B) Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma
C) Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway
D) Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Although certain types of masks can interfere with verbal
communication, it is not a primary risk.
B) INCORRECT. Upsetting a patient because of the appearance of a medically
necessary mask is not generally a risk.
C) CORRECT. When covering a patients mouth and nose with a mask of any kind,
use caution. The mask reduces the ability to visualize and protect the airway.
D) INCORRECT. The masks used by medical care providers will not cause or
exasperate respiratory illnesses.
13) While transporting a patient to the hospital who has a history of terminal brain cancer, the patient
says, I know Im going to die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high school.
What stage of death and dying describes this patients current condition?
A) Bargaining B) Denial C) Depression D) Anger
Explanation: A) CORRECT. In the mind of the patient, bargaining may seem to postpone death and
will commonly include phrases like, At least let me or But first I want.
B) INCORRECT. Patients in the denial stage do not believe that they are going to die.
C) INCORRECT. The depression stage is usually marked by the patient being sad
about the things that she was never able to do.
D) INCORRECT. This patient is not exhibiting the behavior of someone in the anger
14) Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? 14)
A) Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear
B) In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately
available, bleach wipes should be used.
C) If the EMTs hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient.
D) Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30
seconds and then shake them vigorously.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Proper hand cleaning is critical even when gloves are used, and in
most situations an alcohol-based hand cleaner is appropriate.
B) INCORRECT. Either soap and water or alcohol-based hand cleaners should
always be used following patient contact; bleach wipes are not safe for skin.
C) CORRECT. Alcohol-based hand cleaners are considered effective except when
hands are visibly soiled or when anthrax is present.
D) INCORRECT. When soap and water are available following patient contact,
vigorous hand washing is recommended; soaking and shaking is not effective.
15) Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with
an EMTs health and well-being?
A) Distress B) Hyperstress C) Megastress D) Eustress
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Distress can cause immediate and long-term problems with a persons
health and well-being.
B) INCORRECT. The term hyperstress usually refers to a long-term mental or
psychological strain that causes a person to feel overwhelmed.
C) INCORRECT. Megastress is not a recognized form of stress.
D) INCORRECT. Eustress is a positive form of stress that helps people to work under
pressure and respond effectively.
16) Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an immune
A) Cortisol B) Immunoglobulin
C) Epinephrine D) Serotonin
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Cortisol is the hormone that influences metabolism and immune
response, and is critical to the bodys ability to adapt to and cope with stress.
B) INCORRECT. Immunoglobulin is a protein that neutralizes bacteria and viruses in
C) INCORRECT. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, does not assist in stress
control or regulate metabolism.
D) INCORRECT. Serotonin influences a persons sleep, appetite, and moods.
17) When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed TB,
a(n) ________ mask should be worn by the EMT.
A) surgical B) B-50 C) N-95 D) nonrebreather
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A surgical mask does not provide enough protection when exposed
B) INCORRECT. A B-50 mask is not used in the EMS setting.
C) CORRECT. EMTs are required to wear an N-95 or HEPA respirator when treating
or transporting a patient suspected of having TB.
D) INCORRECT. An EMT would never wear a nonrebreather mask when caring for a
18) Which of the following terms is best defined as a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to
A) Eustress B) Stress C) Distress D) Homeostasis
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Eustress is a positive form of stress that helps people work under
pressure and respond effectively.
B) CORRECT. Doctors and psychologists generally define stress as a state of physical
and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus.
C) INCORRECT. Distress is a negative form of stress that can cause immediate and
long-term problems with health and well-being.
D) INCORRECT. The bodys tendency to seek and maintain a certain equilibrium is
19) You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the
patients mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The
patient says, Dont worry, Im not contagious. Ive had this cough for a year. Describe the best
approach regarding respiratory isolation.
A) Mask yourself only.
B) Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask.
C) Mask yourself and the patient.
D) Use gloves for PPE, as thats all thats needed.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. It is a good idea to mask yourself in this situation; however, the
patient should also be masked.
B) INCORRECT. A nonrebreather mask would not be appropriate for this type of
patient. You should use an N-95 of HEPA respirator.
C) CORRECT. Best practice would be to mask yourself and the patient using an N-95
or HEPA respirator.
D) INCORRECT. Since this patient could spatter fluid or blood, a mask should be
worn in addition to gloves.
20) A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to wake up is experiencing
which reaction to death and dying?
A) Anger B) Rejection C) Denial D) Projection
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. An anger reaction would usually be directed at other family
members or the EMS providers for allowing the death to occur.
B) INCORRECT. Rejection is not a term used to describe one of the stages of grief.
C) CORRECT. This family member is obviously in denial about the death of the loved
D) INCORRECT. There is not a reaction to death and dying called projection.
21) For the last few days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble sleeping, has been on
edge, and has trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls. Luckily, your call volume has been
low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask him if
anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been going to
the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work. Choose the best
answer for this situation.
A) Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he
seek professional counseling.
B) Your partner is suffering from acute stress reaction and you should recommend to him that
he seek professional counseling.
C) Your partner is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder and you should go to the bar
with him to provide moral support and talk with him.
D) Your partner is suffering from a cumulative stress reaction. This is a natural response and he
should be fine in a few days.
Explanation: A) CORRECT. EMTs suffering from any type of stress reaction where they are having
difficulty coping should seek professional counseling.
B) INCORRECT. The EMT is suffering from a delayed stress reaction because the
incident occurred over a month prior.
C) INCORRECT. Drug and alcohol abuse is a common coping mechanism for a
delayed stress mechanism, so any form of moral support that involves alcohol
should be avoided.
D) INCORRECT. The EMTs stress response is most-likely from the infant cardiac
arrest call, meaning that it is not cumulative, and he should be encouraged to seek
22) You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a 48-year-old father of three. Despite your best
efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your ambulance in
service, the patients wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds you and begins
screaming at you that her husbands death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the scene
fast enough, taking too long at the house, and not shocking her husband back to life like she has
seen on television. What response should you have to her anger?
A) Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are fiction, so she will not
sue you in the future.
B) Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her hysterical behavior pattern
by getting her attention and helping her calm down.
C) Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be okay.
D) Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Correcting her misconceptions will not help the situation and may
make it worse.
B) INCORRECT. The patient is in the anger stage of grief, not the denial stage. Her
anger is part of the normal grieving process and should not be taken personally.
C) INCORRECT. EMTs should not offer false reassurance by telling the patient that
everything will be okay.
D) CORRECT. Listening empathetically to her concerns and offering to help her as
realistically as possible are the best actions to take when confronted by a person in
the anger stage of grief.
23) Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n): 23)
A) acute stress reaction. B) delayed stress reaction.
C) severe stress reaction. D) cumulative stress reaction.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Acute stress reactions occur immediately, whereas PTSD does not.
B) CORRECT. A delayed stress reaction, also known as posttraumatic stress disorder
(PTSD), has signs and symptoms that may not become evident until days, months,
or even years later.
C) INCORRECT. Posttraumatic stress disorder is not generally called a severe stress
D) INCORRECT. Unlike a cumulative stress reaction, which is caused by a series of
events over time, PTSD can be caused by one significant event.
24) What is the EMTs highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? 24)
A) Identification of hazardous materials B) Personal safety
C) Safety of bystanders D) Patient care
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. There are several priorities that are more important than specifically
identifying the hazardous materials involved in an incident.
B) CORRECT. Your most important roles at the scene of a hazardous material
incident are recognizing that a hazard exists, taking initial actions for your
personal safety and the safety of others, and notifying an appropriately trained
hazardous material response team.
C) INCORRECT. The safety of bystanders is not the EMTs highest priority in this
D) INCORRECT. Although important, patient care is not the highest priority at a
hazardous materials incident.
25) Which three Rs are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger? 25)
A) Retreat, radio, reevaluate B) Ricochet, recover, re-entry
C) Remember, respect, respond D) Realize, react, reassess
Explanation: A) CORRECT. The three Rs of reacting to danger are retreat, radio, and reevaluate.
B) INCORRECT. Ricochet, recover, and re-entry are not the three Rs of reacting to
C) INCORRECT. The concept behind the three Rs is to get out of danger, request
assistance, and determine the next course of action.
D) INCORRECT. The three Rs of reacting to danger are not realizing, reacting, and
26) What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A? 26)
A) Bloodborne B) Fecal-oral
C) Respiratory droplet D) Unprotected sex
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Hepatitis A is not a bloodborne pathogen.
B) CORRECT. Hepatitis A is acquired primarily through contact with food or water
contaminated by feces.
C) INCORRECT. Hepatitis A is not normally transmitted through respiratory
D) INCORRECT. Although most types of hepatitis can be spread through unprotected
sex, hepatitis A is not usually transmitted this way.
27) What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different
A) To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible
B) To protect the EMT from becoming infected
C) To prevent spreading infection to the next patient
D) To minimize the amount of time the EMTs hands are spent in gloves
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Disposing of soiled gloves is important, but it is not the primary
reason to change them between patients.
B) INCORRECT. Wearing gloves is what protects EMTs from exposure to infection,
not changing them between patients.
C) CORRECT. Be sure to change gloves between contact with different patients to
prevent the spread of infection.
D) INCORRECT. There is no need to minimize the amount of time an EMT wears
gloves while providing patient care.
28) According to Dr. Hans Selye, the third stage of the Stress Triad is known as the ________ stage. 28)
A) alarm B) exhaustion C) resistance D) cumulative
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The alarm stage is first in Dr. Selyes Stress Triad.
B) CORRECT. Exhaustion is the third stage of the Stress Triad.
C) INCORRECT. Resistance is the second stage of Dr. Selyes Stress Triad.
D) INCORRECT. The Stress Triad doesnt include a cumulative stage.
29) What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare
providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on
A) Communicable Disease Notification Act
B) Ryan White CARE Act
C) Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act
D) EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The Communicable Disease Notification Act is not a federal
B) CORRECT. The Ryan White CARE Act and the Ryan White HIV/AIDS Treatment
Extension Act of 2009 establish procedures by which emergency response workers
may find out if they have been exposed to life-threatening infectious diseases.
C) INCORRECT. The Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act does not
exist as a federal regulation.
D) INCORRECT. The federal government did not mandate exposure notifications
through an EMS Personnel Health Protection Act in 1991.
30) Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? 30)
A) An immunity developed after an exposure
B) A medication with a harmful effect
C) An organism that causes infection and disease
D) A study of the origins of infection and disease
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Immunity following an exposure is known as an acquired
B) INCORRECT. A medication with a harmful side effect is not called a pathogen.
C) CORRECT. Pathogens are organisms that cause infection, such as viruses and
D) INCORRECT. Pathology is the study of the origins of infections and disease.
31) You are dispatched to a man down with no further information. As your unit arrives on-scene,
you see a crowd of bystanders looking at a man lying in an alleyway. The bystanders begin
screaming to you, Help him, hes been shot! Hes bleeding real bad! What would be the best
course of action?
A) Tell law enforcement investigators to meet your unit at the ER.
B) Move bystanders aside since the patient will die without treatment.
C) Dispatch law enforcement and wait until the scene is secure.
D) Load and go, because youre already on-scene.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. This patient should not even be approached for care or transport
until the EMTs are certain that the scene is safe.
B) INCORRECT. The EMTs first priorityeven before patient careis to be certain that
the scene is safe.
C) CORRECT. This is an uncontrolled and potentially dangerous situation. The EMTs
should not attempt to enter or care for the patient until their own safety is assured.
D) INCORRECT. This unsecured scene is potentially too dangerous for the EMTs to
enter and get the patient.
32) Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an
acute psychological problem?
A) Irritability with friends, family, coworkers, or patients
B) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment
C) Increased speeding and reckless driving
D) Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Common signs and symptoms of stress include irritability with family,
friends, and coworkers; inability to concentrate; loss of interest in sexual activity;
anxiety; and loss of interest in work.
B) INCORRECT. Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment are signs and
symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
C) INCORRECT. Reckless driving and speeding are not common signs of stress.
D) INCORRECT. Failure to use PPE appropriately is not a sign of stress, it is just
33) What are some signs and symptoms that a coworker may be experiencing delayed stress reaction
A) Excessive sleeping, loss of appetite, and distractibility
B) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment
C) Headaches, stomach ailments, and a chronic cough
D) Suspicion of friends, family, coworkers, or patients
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A coworker with these signs and symptoms may be suffering from
depression, but not PTSD specifically.
B) CORRECT. Signs and symptoms of PTSD may include flashbacks, nightmares,
feelings of detachment, irritability, sleep difficulties, or problems with
concentration or interpersonal relationships.
C) INCORRECT. PTSD does not commonly cause physical ailments.
D) INCORRECT. Suspicion is generally not a symptom of PTSD.
34) What is a positive, healthy way to help deal with stress? 34)
A) Caffeine to get up and go
B) Adding workload to a busy regular schedule
C) Drinking alcohol to unwind
D) Regular physical exercise
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Using caffeine or any other stimulant to deal with stress is
B) INCORRECT. Relaxing more, rather than adding work, is a positive way to cope
C) INCORRECT. Drug and alcohol abuse is a negative (although common) coping
mechanism for stress.
D) CORRECT. Developing a more healthful lifestyle through diet and exercise is a
positive way to deal with stress.
35) Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B ________ available to employees
free of charge.
A) immunity B) prophylaxis C) cure D) vaccine
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The law does not require healthcare employers to provide immunity
from hepatitis B.
B) INCORRECT. Although a prophylaxis is a measure taken to prevent a disease, the
law governing healthcare providers is more specific regarding hepatitis B.
C) INCORRECT. There is no cure for hepatitis B.
D) CORRECT. Employers must make the hepatitis B vaccination series available free
of charge and at a reasonable time and place.
36) All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except: 36)
A) spending more time relaxing with friends and family.
B) eating more carbohydrates.
C) following a regular walking regimen.
D) drinking caffeine instead of alcohol.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Devoting time to relaxing with friends and family can have a
positive effect on a persons mental well-being.
B) INCORRECT. Healthful eating habits, such as avoiding fatty foods and increasing
carbohydrate intake, is physically and mentally beneficial.
C) INCORRECT. When performed safely and properly, exercise helps to burn off
stress, and it can also better prepare the EMT for the physical aspects of the job.
D) CORRECT. Both caffeine and alcohol can increase stress and anxiety, as well as
disturb sleep patterns.
37) An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An
elevation in the EMTs heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the bodys response to
A) Exhaustion stage B) Resistance stage
C) Alarm reaction stage D) Response stage
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The exhaustion stage includes adrenal gland enlargement and
bleeding gastric ulcers.
B) INCORRECT. The body systems return to normal during the resistance stage of
C) CORRECT. During the alarm reaction stage of stress, pupil dilation, heart rate
increases, and bronchial passage dilation are all common.
D) INCORRECT. There is no clinically recognized response stage to stress.
38) During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance
A) Childbirth B) Splinting a sprained ankle
C) Glucometry D) Bandaging a laceration
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Emergency responders can easily be exposed to blood and
numerous types of body fluids when assisting at childbirth.
B) CORRECT. Splinting a sprained ankle will generally not expose an EMT to blood
or body fluids.
C) INCORRECT. Glucometry involves obtaining blood samples for testing.
D) INCORRECT. Exposure to blood is likely when caring for lacerations.
39) What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body
substance isolation precautions?
A) Infection-control plan B) Exposure-control plan
C) Personal protective equipment D) Harm-reduction strategy
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. An infection-control plan will usually call for body substance
isolation precautions, but it is not a term used to describe the items needed.
B) INCORRECT. Although an exposure-control plan may include directives for
Standard Precautions, the term itself does not refer to the items required.
C) CORRECT. Personal protective equipment such as gloves, goggles, and gowns
help to protect care providers from exposure to body substances.
D) INCORRECT. The term harm-reduction strategy does not describe the items
needed for body substance isolation precautions.
40) Critical Incident Stress Debriefings (CISDs): 40)
A) have been replaced with defusings.
B) are now less common than they once were.
C) must be held from 2 to 4 hours following an incident to be effective.
D) are always recommended.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Critical Incident Stress Debriefings and defusing sessions are two
different types of stress management events; one does not replace the other.
B) CORRECT. The CISD model is now used less frequently and is not recommended
by many in EMS and mental health professions.
C) INCORRECT. If they are to be effective at all, CISDs should occur within 24 to 72
hours following the incident.
D) INCORRECT. Critical Incident Stress Debriefings are no longer standard in the
41) Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash
may consider using ________ in addition to standard PPE.
A) face shields B) Level B hazmat suits
C) N-95 masks D) heavy-duty gloves
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Although face shields will protect against some fluid exposure, they
would generally not be beneficial as protection at a vehicle crash scene.
B) INCORRECT. Level B hazmat suits are not only unnecessary during a standard
vehicle crash response, they would also provide very little extra protection from
metal and broken glass.
C) INCORRECT. N-95 masks will provide no additional protective benefit to
providers responding to an unstable environment.
D) CORRECT. As an EMT works in rescue operations, such as following a car crash,
he will need personal protective equipment that includes turnout gear (coat, pants,
and boots), protective eyewear, helmet, and heavy-duty gloves.
42) What action does an organ undergo to best describe the term hypertrophy? 42)
A) Enlargement B) Wasting C) Changing D) Absence
Explanation: A) CORRECT. The term hypertrophy means enlargement and is seen in the third stage
of the bodys response to stress.
B) INCORRECT. An organ that is wasting is not considered to be hypertrophying.
C) INCORRECT. Although a hypertrophied organ is one that has changed, that is not
the best description of the term.
D) INCORRECT. Hypertrophy does not indicate the absence of an organ.
43) What reference provides important information regarding hazardous materials, emergency care,
and procedures in case of accidental fire or release; supplies definitions of placard colors and
identification numbers; and should be standard issue on-board all ambulances and rescue units?
A) Safety Data Sheets
B) Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan
C) Emergency Response Guidebook
D) Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Safety Data Sheets are not carried on ambulances and rescue units.
B) INCORRECT. An emergency preparedness and response plan is not a
comprehensive hazardous materials reference.
C) CORRECT. The Emergency Response Guidebook provides important information
about the properties and labeling of dangerous substance as well as information on
safe distances, emergency care, and suggested procedures in the event of spills or
D) INCORRECT. An Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide does not provide
information on all common hazardous materials, including placard identification,
nor is it standard issue on all ambulances.
44) An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? 44)
A) A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris
B) A patient who is actively coughing
C) A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration
D) A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Dirt and foreign debris on a patient does not generally pose an
exposure threat to responders.
B) CORRECT. Eye protection prevents splashing, spattering, or spraying fluids (such
as from a cough) from entering the body through the mucous membranes of the
C) INCORRECT. A scalp laceration that is difficult to see does not specifically require
the EMT to have protective eyewear.
D) INCORRECT. Mace is not a pathogen that can infect an EMT through exposure to
45) You are first on the scene of a vehicle collision where a vehicle has gone off a bridge and is partially
submerged. You are told that a person is still trapped in the vehicle. Your partner starts to take off
his shoes and prepares to go in to save the victim. You stop your partner and tell him it is too
dangerous. He tells you he is prepared to die to save a life. What is the best response to him?
A) He will force additional fire units to come to his aid unnecessarily and waste taxpayer money.
B) The patients family may sue him if he is not successful in rescuing him.
C) His family will not receive any benefits if he is not trained in rescue and dies while
attempting a rescue.
D) He is not only putting his life at risk, but also placing the lives of the professional rescuers
unnecessarily at risk.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The fire units will be put out of service unnecessarily at a waste of
money, but the life safety of the EMT and the professional rescuers is the first
B) INCORRECT. There is no guarantee as to whether the victims family may or may
not sue the EMT regardless of what he does.
C) INCORRECT. The financial benefits the EMTs family may or may not receive are
not of importance.
D) CORRECT. The life of the EMT and those who may be forced to rescue him take
the highest priority.
46) Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor vehicle
A) Reflective outer clothing B) Portable radio
C) Flashlight D) Nonslip footwear
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Being highly visible to passing motorists is critical to an EMTs safety
while working on or near a roadway; reflective outer clothing is essential.
B) INCORRECT. Simply having a portable radio does not make an EMT safer at a
C) INCORRECT. A flashlight can be effective at night to expose potential hazards and
provide some visibility to the EMTs location for passing drivers, but if the collision
occurs during the day it will not do much good.
D) INCORRECT. Proper footwear is important when working in EMS, but nonslip
shoes would not provide the greatest benefit on the scene of a vehicle crash.
47) The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is used
A) prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure.
B) detect a persons exposure to tuberculosis.
C) determine if a person has infected others with TB.
D) inoculate healthcare workers against TB infections.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A tuberculin skin test will not prevent the spread of TB.
B) CORRECT. The tuberculin skin test will show if a person has been exposed to TB.
C) INCORRECT. The TST does not determine if a person is infected with TB, nor if
they have infected others.
D) INCORRECT. There is no immunization against tuberculosis used in the United
48) You are on the scene of an unknown medical call. The patient is a 26-year-old, 250-pound male
patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him
angrier. Offended by your questions, he screams that he is going to cut your tongue out and
hurries into the kitchen. What should you do?
A) Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the house, being sure to take all of your medical
B) Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance.
C) Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to stab you.
D) Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they arrive.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Whenever a patient becomes violent or threatens violence, the EMT
should immediately leave the scene and call for police and not do anything that
will slow down or impede his escape, such as taking the time to collect heavy
B) CORRECT. The EMT should leave immediately, call for assistance, and not
re-enter the scene until it has been made safe by law enforcement.
C) INCORRECT. The EMT should not try to fight the patient, as he is not trained in
law enforcement techniques and the EMT can be seriously injured or killed.
D) INCORRECT. The EMT should never stay on-scene in an attempt to calm down
the violent patient or provide pertinent scene information to the police. This is a
very dangerous situation and can result in serious injury or death.
49) Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response
experienced in response to a stressor?
A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Central nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Peripheral nervous system
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for more passive
tasks like stimulating saliva production.
B) INCORRECT. The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord and
does not directly react to stress.
C) CORRECT. When exposed to stressors, the sympathetic nervous system increases
its activity in what is known as the fight-or-flight syndrome.
D) INCORRECT. The peripheral nervous system does not create the fight-or-flight
50) You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of
appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the
cause of these signs and symptoms?
A) Pneumonia B) Hepatitis B C) AIDS D) Tuberculosis
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A person suffering from pneumonia may present with a cough,
fever, chills and difficulty breathing.
B) INCORRECT. Abdominal and/or joint pain, dark urine, fever, weakness, and
jaundice are common signs and symptoms of hepatitis B.
C) INCORRECT. Although rapid weight loss and night sweats or fevers are common
among patients with AIDS, a productive cough is not generally related.
D) CORRECT. Patients who have TB may have the following signs and symptoms:
productive cough (coughing up mucus or other fluid) and/or coughing up blood,
weight loss and loss of appetite, lethargy and weakness, night sweats, and fever.
51) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)? 51)
A) The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue.
B) A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure.
C) TB is not spread through surface contamination.
D) The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The tuberculosis infection can sometimes settle in the lungs, but may
also be found in other areas of the body.
B) CORRECT. Although there is no immunization against tuberculosis used in the
United States, a tuberculin skin test (TST) can detect exposure.
C) INCORRECT. Tuberculosis is highly contagious and can be spread through any
contact with infected fluids, whether airborne or on surfaces.
D) INCORRECT. The incubation period for tuberculosis is between 2 and 12 weeks.
52) A(n) ________ is a situation that may lead to an acute stress reaction. 52)
A) abuse of alcohol B) routine call
C) ongoing night shift D) injury of a coworker
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Substance abuse will generally lead to cumulative issues.
B) INCORRECT. A routine call will not lead to an acute stress reaction.
C) INCORRECT. An ongoing night shift may lead to cumulative stress problems.
D) CORRECT. An acute stress reaction occurs simultaneously with or shortly after a
critical incident, such as a disaster or injury of a coworker.
53) What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital
A) Notify the CDC and local health department of flu cases.
B) Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients.
C) Encourage patients to get their H1N1 antivirals early in the flu season.
D) Transport all patients with coughs to negative pressure rooms.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Although it is beneficial for the CDC and other various health
departments to track flu outbreaks, it does not prevent flu from spreading.
B) CORRECT. When a patient is suspected of having an infection spread by droplets
(such as flu or measles), a surgical-type mask may be placed on the patient if he is
alert and cooperative.
C) INCORRECT. Promoting flu shots in the community is important, but it is not a
simple step that an EMT can perform to prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital
D) INCORRECT. Transporting patients to negative pressure rooms is not a simple
54) Since EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors, ________ management
may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences.
A) chronic stress B) critical incident stress
C) crisis intervention D) stress prevention
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. EMS professionals are potentially exposed to both acute and chronic
stress; both of which must be managed.
B) CORRECT. Critical incident stress management (CISM) is a comprehensive system
that includes education and resources to both prevent stress and to deal with
on-the-job stress appropriately when it does occur.
C) INCORRECT. Crisis intervention is generally only focused on acute incidents.
D) INCORRECT. The stresses encountered while working in EMS cannot usually be
prevented, so programs should be focused on appropriately dealing with the
55) What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient
infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)?
A) Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown B) Gloves
C) Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles D) Gloves and N-95 mask
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Protection against MERS and other respiratory infections in a
patient-care setting includes frequent hand washing and the use of gloves, gowns,
eye protection, and an N-95 respirator.
B) INCORRECT. Gloves alone will not properly protect the EMT when caring for a
C) INCORRECT. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles are not sufficient Standard
Precautions when transporting a MERS patient.
D) INCORRECT. Gloves and an N-95 mask will only protect the providers hands and
respiratory system, leaving other routes open to infection from MERS exposure.
56) Which of the following pathogens is transmitted through contact with open wounds or sores? 56)
A) Meningitis B) Pertussis C) Rubella D) Staphylococcus
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Meningitis is passed by contact with oral or nasal secretions.
B) INCORRECT. Pertussis (whooping cough) is not passed through open wounds or
C) INCORRECT. Rubella is normally transmitted through airborne droplets.
D) CORRECT. Staphylococcus is transmitted through direct contact with infected
wounds or sores, or with contaminated objects.
57) When responding to the scene of a patient who was discovered to be unresponsive, not breathing,
and without a pulse, family members state that the patient has been suffering from cancer for
several years. One of his sons is cursing at you and your partner, saying that you are not moving
fast enough. Which stage of grief is the patients son experiencing in response to his fathers death?
A) Acceptance B) Depression C) Denial D) Anger
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A person who has reached acceptance of the situation would not be
cursing or ordering emergency providers to move quicker.
B) INCORRECT. A hallmark of the depression stage is sadness and despair.
C) INCORRECT. The denial stage is usually accompanied by a belief that nothing is
D) CORRECT. The anger stage of grief is commonly vented on family members and
58) Which of the following terms refers to a positive form of stress that helps people work when under
pressure and respond effectively?
A) Prostress B) Unstress C) Distress D) Eustress
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Prostress is not a term used to describe a positive form of stress.
B) INCORRECT. The word unstress is related to grammar and word pronunciation
and does not apply to stress reactions.
C) INCORRECT. Distress is a negative form of stress that can create immediate and
lasting negative effects.
D) CORRECT. Eustress is a positive form of stress that helps people to work under
pressure and respond effectively.
59) You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a
person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you
immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your
hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in
blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best
A) If your hands had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk
of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy.
B) Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of
money for failing to report the exposure.
C) Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection.
D) Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial
compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Fear of discipline is never an acceptable reason for failing to report
an exposure, and just because the EMT has no open wounds it does not mean that
there is no risk.
B) INCORRECT. There is no law mandating that employees have to self-report any
C) CORRECT. Immediate reporting of any bloodborne pathogen exposure is critical
to minimize any potential infection risk to the EMT.
D) INCORRECT. Although reporting the exposure may be helpful from a financial
perspective should the EMT become infected, this is not the best reason for
disclosing the exposure.
60) An EMT involved in an especially difficult call, such as one in which a coworker was killed, should
be urged to:
A) seek help from a trained mental health professional.
B) discuss the experience freely with coworkers.
C) conceal the problem because care may not be covered financially.
D) begin a course of psychiatric medications.
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Medical professionals and EMS leaders agree that the best course of
action for an EMT who is experiencing significant stress from a serious call or
experience is to seek help from a mental health professional who is experienced in
treating these issues.
B) INCORRECT. Openly discussing a difficult call with coworkers may increase the
stress levels of all involved and the responses received may not always be helpful.
C) INCORRECT. Concealing the stress caused by a traumatic incident can be very
damaging and result in long-term problems.
D) INCORRECT. Psychiatric medications are generally not the first step in dealing
with a stressful situation.
61) The term burnout is also known as a(n) ________ stress reaction. 61)
A) cumulative B) delayed C) post-traumatic D) acute
Explanation: A) CORRECT. A cumulative stress reaction (also known as burnout) occurs as a result
of prolonged recurring stressors.
B) INCORRECT. A delayed stress reaction doesnt result in burnout.
C) INCORRECT. Burnout is not a sign or symptom of a post-traumatic stress reaction.
D) INCORRECT. An acute stress reaction occurs during or just after a critical incident,
whereas burnout takes longer to develop.
62) Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death
A) Being firm with grieving family members and telling them they need to accept what has
B) Giving a dying patient hope that a cure can be found before the patient dies
C) Providing spiritual guidance to patients who express anger at God
D) Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The EMT should just be patient and comforting; telling people how
they should be feeling in a tragic situation is not beneficial.
B) INCORRECT. Offering false reassurances do not help in situations involving dying
patients, and clearly shows a lack of understanding by the EMT.
C) INCORRECT. It is inappropriate for an EMT to try to correct, debate or convince a
patient who is dying.
D) CORRECT. There may be feelings of helpless rage about death or the prospect of
death. An EMT should know that the anger is not personal and to be tolerant of the
reactions in these situations.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is
pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He
says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an
appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs?
A) Call the patients neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patients house but
he is now refusing care.
B) Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his
will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem.
C) Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital.
D) Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid,
and go to bed.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. This would violate the patients confidentiality, create the potential
for conflict, and likely not be effective anyway.
B) INCORRECT. An EMT who takes or even threatens to take a competent adult
patient against his will could be violating numerous laws.
C) CORRECT. If the cause of the refusal can be determined, The EMT may be able to
develop a strategy to persuade the patient to accept care and transportation to the
hospital. The best tact for this is to clearly inform the patient of the potential for a
serious medical condition, and the implications of refusing care.
D) INCORRECT. This would not be consistent with the standard of care expected of
an EMT; advising this patient against medical evaluation would not be
2) Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a
friends house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment?
A) Act on implied consent.
B) Call the patients mother at work.
C) Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.
D) Get consent from the patients 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Implied consent applies to unconscious patients and minors when a
parent or guardian cannot be contacted.
B) CORRECT. Since the injury is not life-threatening, it would be appropriate to take
the time to contact a parent or guardian to seek approval for care.
C) INCORRECT. A 10-year-old minor would most likely not be emancipated;
consent would have to be obtained to treat him.
D) INCORRECT. Another minor, even when related, cannot legally provide consent.
3) While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could
constitute which of the following?
A) HIPAA violation B) Libel
C) Slander D) Degradation of character
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. HIPAA relates to the management and sharing of confidential
patient information, not statements written in emergency call documentation.
B) CORRECT. Making a written statement that could injure another persons
reputation is known as libel.
C) INCORRECT. Slander is making a verbal statement that damages another persons
D) INCORRECT. False statements will generally not degrade a persons character, just
perhaps their reputation.
4) In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient
in cardiac arrest?
A) The patients caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician.
B) Family members request that nothing be done.
C) The EMTs religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents
documentation of the patients wishes.
D) All of the above
Explanation: A) CORRECT. A properly signed Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order is a legal directive
to withhold defined resuscitative efforts.
B) INCORRECT. The wishes of family members alone should not influence the
decision to begin or withhold resuscitation.
C) INCORRECT. An EMTs personal convictions should never be a factor in the
decision to begin or withhold resuscitative measures.
D) INCORRECT. Not all of the answers provided are correct.
5) You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical
information about the patient through which of the following?
A) Medical history identifier B) Medical identification device
C) On-call Medical Director D) Drivers license
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. There is no common, immediately accessible medical information
resource called a medical history identifier.
B) CORRECT. A patient may wear a medical identification device to alert EMTs and
other health care professionals that she has a particular medical condition.
C) INCORRECT. An on-call Medical Director is a physician who provides verbal
direction to EMS personnel specific to medical care; the Medical Director would
not have access to information about a specific patient.
D) INCORRECT. A drivers license will not have any medical information on it.
6) While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patients vacation home, which of the
following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime scene?
A) Using the bathroom B) Using the patients phone
C) Moving the patient D) All of the above
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. EMTs going anywhere in the home and moving or touching
anything at the scene can interfere with the investigation, but this is not the only
B) INCORRECT. Touching and dialing the patients phone can ruin potential
evidence, but this is not the only consideration.
C) INCORRECT. Although potentially necessary, moving the patient will most likely
interfere with the crime scene investigation, but this is not the only consideration.
D) CORRECT. All of the answers provided could interfere with a crime scene
7) Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT? 7)
A) Proximate causation existed.
B) The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.
C) The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care.
D) The EMT had a duty to act.
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Proximate causation, or the concept that damages to the patient
resulted from the actions or inaction of an EMT, must be proven.
B) CORRECT. There is no need for the patient to have feared bodily harm in order for
negligence to have occurred.
C) INCORRECT. An EMT must fail to act in accordance with the standard of care for
negligence to occur.
D) INCORRECT. In order to find an EMT negligent, a duty to act must have existed.
8) You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the scene, you are
approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you
will take care of her first, he will ensure that you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes
what type of decision for you as an EMT?
A) Financial B) Ethical C) Medical D) Legal
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Although the promise of a promotion may create the opportunity
for financial benefit in the future, this decision is not a financial one.
B) CORRECT. Ethical decisions are ones where the EMT must choose between doing
what is right and what might be wrong or self-serving; many ethical decisions are
not clinical in nature and can have legal ramifications.
C) INCORRECT. The decision to treat one patient instead of another for the promise
of personal gain for the responding EMT is not a medical decision.
D) INCORRECT. There may be no specific law that applies in this situation; as long as
all patients get appropriate care, it may be perfectly legal to treat the politicians
9) Which of the following is the EMTs primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? 9)
A) Providing patient care
B) Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene
C) Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony
D) Preserving evidence
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Once police have made the scene safe, the EMTs priority at a crime
scene is to provide patient care.
B) INCORRECT. Although the EMT should remain observant while on scene, his first
priority is not identifying potential suspects.
C) INCORRECT. Everything should be documented appropriately, but taking no
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