Forensic Psychology 4th edition by Joanna Pozzulo Test Bank

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Forensic Psychology 4th edition by Joanna Pozzulo Test Bank

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WITH ANSWERS
Forensic Psychology 4th edition by Joanna Pozzulo Test Bank

Chapter 2: Multiple Choice

 

1) New strategies for recruiting police officers, such as those used by the Vancouver Police Department, involve

  1. more rigorous physical testing
  2. use of social media such as blogs and Twitter
  3. criminal background checks
  4. screening for mental disorders
  5. use of role play to determine suitability

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 28-29

 

2) Lewis Termans attempt to assist with police selection in the early 1900s involved the assessment of:

  1. intelligence
  2. physical abilities
  3. personality traits
  4. criminal background
  5. authoritarianism

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 29

 

3) Which of the following police selection procedures is used by all Canadian police agencies when selecting officers?

  1. medical exams
  2. polygraph tests
  3. cognitive ability tests
  4. drug tests
  5. personality tests

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 30

 

4) Marcus has applied to become an RCMP officer. What are the two primary aptitude battery assessments that he must pass in order to progress in the selection process?

  1. polygraph exam and the police aptitude test
  2. the six factor personality questionnaire and the physical abilities requirement evaluation
  3. the physical abilities requirement evaluation and a field investigation
  4. the police aptitude test and the six factor personality questionnaire
  5. cadet training and the police aptitude test

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 31

 

5) According to Cochrane, Tett, and Vandecreek (2003), which of the following police selection procedures is most commonly used in the United States?

  1. physical agility tests
  2. drug testing
  3. selection interview
  4. background checks
  5. polygraph tests

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 30

 

6) Julia has applied to become a police officer with the Hamilton Police Service. Which of the following selection procedures will NOT be used throughout her application process?

  1. Physical ability testing
  2. Personality testing
  3. Selection interview
  4. Background check
  5. Polygraph test

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 30

 

7) In the context of police selection, what is meant by KSA?

  1. KSA is a physical ability test taken by all potential officers.
  2. KSA refers to sets of characteristics that define a good police officer.
  3. KSA is a police selection agency.
  4. KSA refers to characteristics that are undesirable in a potential police officer.
  5. KSA refers to an instrument that is used to assess psychopathology.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 30, 32

 

8) In the context of police selection, the term validation refers to:

  1. the development of a selection instrument to measure the abilities of potential police officers
  2. the need to ensure that certified individuals are administering police selection tests to applicants
  3. the need to ensure that the results of a police selection instrument are related to some measure of police performance
  4. a job analysis
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 32-33

 

9) Which of the following is considered to be a serious problem with validation research in the area of police selection?

  1. There is disagreement on how to best measure the performance of police officers.
  2. There is no validity coefficient available for measuring predictive validity.
  3. Indicators of on-the-job performance do not exist in the policing field.
  4. Cognitive ability tests are characterised by relatively high validity coefficients.
  5. Few police applicants have to go through the selection process.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 32-33

 

10) When conducting job analysis concerning police selection, an organizational psychologist may find this challenging because

  1. different jobs within policing are related to different KSAs.
  2. the KSAs of a good police officer may not be stable over time.
  3. individuals disagree over which KSAs are important to assess.
  4. there are a range of techniques for identifying relevant KSAs
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 32-33

 

11) Which of the following individuals would be best suited to become a police officer based on the essential KSAs identified in your text?

  1. Sarah: has a public relations background, volunteered at a childrens fitness program, has received leadership awards, got top grades in her degree program, and is considered responsible and trustworthy.
  2. Lyle: has a high degree of physical fitness, considered funny and personable, doesnt get bothered by what other people think of him, and is highly independent and motivated.
  3. Tarek: has worked extensively with youth populations, very shy and considerate, works well in small groups, always willing to help others, tries to minimize stressful situations.
  4. Juanita: has lived all over the world and speaks several languages, outperformed her classmates on the PARE, wants to prove that women can be police officers, and is dominant and strong-willed.
  5. Ashton: scored in the acceptable ranges on all physical and psychological testing, background check was clean, critical of self and others, and endorses rigid legal attitudes and practices.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 32

 

12) Which psychometric property is most important in the context of police selection?

  1. concurrent validity
  2. divergent validity
  3. predictive validity
  4. intrinsic reliability
  5. long-term reliability

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 32

 

13) The validity coefficient calculated for a selection instrument (when it is used to predict job performance) is +0.99. This means that:

  1. as performance on the selection instrument increases, so do ratings of job performance
  2. as performance on the selection instrument increases, ratings of job performance decrease
  3. the coefficient is negative, so there is no relationship between the selection instrument and job performance ratings
  4. there is a strong relationship between the results of the selection instrument and ratings of job performance
  5. both a and d

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 33

 

14) Which of the following has been identified as a key problem with the police selection interview?

  1. The interview lacks any structure.
  2. The interview is too lengthy to be used by many police agencies.
  3. Interviewers often disagree on the ratings that should be assigned to various attributes of the interviewee.
  4. The interview has very high predictive validity.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 34-35

 

15) You are applying to be a police officer with the RCMP. Which of the following tests would you expect to be administered in order to measure your cognitive abilities?

  1. IPI
  2. the situational test
  3. RPAT
  4. KSA
  5. MMPI

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 35-36

 

16) Cognitive ability tests used during police selection tend to be better at predicting _____________ relative to ______________.

  1. judgment and problem-solving; situational testing
  2. police suitability; personality testing
  3. personality score results; successful on-the-job performance
  4. academy performance; on-the-job performance
  5. poor on-the-job performance; successful on-the-job performance

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 35-36

 

17) A common personality test used in police selection is the IPI. What does IPI stand for?

  1. Inbaus Personality Index
  2. Inwald Personality Inventory
  3. Inwalds Policing Index
  4. Iterative Policing Inventory
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 37

 

18) As a psychologist involved in police selection, which measure(s) would you be most confident in administering to an applicant if your goal was to accurately predict their future job performance?

  1. IPI
  2. SILS
  3. MMPI
  4. MMPI-2
  5. the combined results of the MMPI and the MMPI-2

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 37

 

19) As a psychologist involved in police selection, which measure(s) would you be most confident in administering to an applicant if your goal was to accurately predict the potential for a candidate to display problematic police behaviour?

  1. IPI
  2. SILS
  3. MMPI
  4. MMPI-2 Lie Scale
  5. RPAT

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 36-37

 

20) What is the most common police selection instrument used in assessment centres?

  1. personality tests
  2. cognitive ability tests
  3. situational tests
  4. selection interviews
  5. polygraph tests

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 37-38

 

21) An RCMP applicant is given a certain period of time to interview witnesses in a mock domestic disturbance case and complete an incident report. This scenario is most likely a component of:

  1. an IPI
  2. a situational test
  3. a selection interview
  4. an RPAT
  5. a personality test

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 37-38

 

22) As a police selection instrument, research suggests that situational tests have:

  1. no predictive validity
  2. extremely high predictive validity
  3. moderate predictive validity
  4. no research has been conducted on the predictive validity of situational tests
  5. results of studies that have been conducted are inconclusive

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 37-38

 

23) According to your text, which selection procedure is associated with the best predictive validity for how a police candidate will perform on-the-job?

  1. Selection interview
  2. KSA assessment
  3. Cognitive ability tests
  4. The situational test
  5. Personality tests

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 36-37

 

24) According to Sheehan and Cordner (1989), which of the following are arguments for the use of police discretion?

  1. Law enforcement resources are limited and full enforcement of the law would overwhelm the criminal justice system.
  2. Most law violations are minor and do not require strict enforcement all the time.
  3. Some laws are vague and ill-defined, which makes discretion necessary.
  4. Full enforcement of the law would alienate the public.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 40

 

25) Jerome is an African Canadian male living in downtown Sudbury. He gets pulled over by the police in a traffic stop even though he has not violated the law and was doing the speed limit. Jeromes experience reflects the presence of _____________ in policing.

  1. discretion
  2. racial profiling
  3. simulation exercises
  4. selection procedures
  5. ticketing quotas

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 40-41

 

26) What is considered to be the primary reason why the likelihood of encounters between the police and mentally ill individuals has increased?

  1. Mentally ill persons commit more crimes.
  2. Most criminal behaviour is associated with mental illness of some kind.
  3. The recent movement towards deinstitutionalization of mentally ill individuals.
  4. Victimization rates of persons with mental illness have increased.
  5. All of the above.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 41-42

 

27) Hoch, Hartford, Heslop, and Stitt (2009) conducted a study to determine whether mentally ill individuals in London, Ontario were more likely than non-mentally ill individuals to come into contact with the police and be arrested and/or charged. They found that:

  1. mentally ill individuals had significantly less contact with the police
  2. mentally ill individuals had significantly more contact with the police
  3. mentally ill individuals were more likely to get arrested and charged by the police
  4. mentally ill individuals were less likely to get arrested and charged by the police
  5. both b and c

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 42

 

28) According to the U.S. Bureau of Justice Statistics (2005), approximately what percentage of police-citizen interactions involve the actual or threatened use of force?

  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 25%
  4. 50%
  5. 75%

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 44-45

 

29) As discussed in the textbook, what was the main issue in the case of Paul Boyd?

  1. the rights of mentally disordered offenders
  2. police use of force
  3. police discretion in situations involving domestic disturbances
  4. the use of inappropriate police discretion in cases involving youths
  5. the negative effects of police stress

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 44-45

 

30) Which of the following statements is true regarding police use-of-force data from Calgary, Alberta?

  1. Suspects in use-of-force encounters are usually female.
  2. Suspects in use-of-force encounters are usually under the influence of drugs or alcohol at the time of the encounter, or experiencing distress.
  3. Suspects in use-of-force encounters typically get seriously injured.
  4. Use-of-force encounters are extremely frequent.
  5. tasers are the intervention that results in the highest rate of injury.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 45-46

 

31) Following the death of Robert Dziekanski in 2007 after being tasered by RCMP in the Vancouver International Airport, new policies were released which restricted taser use only to situations where

  1. suspects are not cooperating with police officers.
  2. suspects are trying to escape from police custody.
  3. suspects are exhibiting active resistance such as causing bodily harm to self or others.
  4. suspects are uttering verbal threats against police officers or members of the public.
  5. suspects refuse to comply with police requests.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 46-47

 

32) According to the use-of-force continuum, a police officer must be prepared to use a level of force that is __________ the amount of force used by the suspect.

  1. one step higher than
  2. one step lower than
  3. equal to
  4. two steps higher than
  5. two steps lower than

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 47-48

 

33) Which of the following is not true of the use-of-force continuum?

  1. It is an indirect method of helping to control the amount of force used by a police officer.
  2. It provides a dynamic guide that can potentially assist with use-of-force decision making.
  3. Following the continuum completely removes the need for police discretion in use-of-force situations.
  4. The continuum encourages officers to continually assess their surroundings.
  5. Lethal force is one of the use-of-force options included in the continuum.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 47-48

 

34) Results from Duxbury and Higgins (2012) study of police stress in Canada indicate that

  1. police officers in Canada experience much less stress relative to police in other countries.
  2. psychological services within Canadian police forces are under-utilized by officers who really need them.
  3. occupational stressors are the leading cause of stress among Canadian police officers.
  4. public stressors cause more stress for police officers relative to both occupational and organizational stressors.
  5. Police officers experience significant difficulty balancing their work and home life.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 50-51

 

35) Police officers are exposed to a wide range of stressors. Experiencing shift work and being exposed to human suffering are examples of:

  1. public stressors
  2. organizational stressors
  3. criminal justice stressors
  4. occupational stressors
  5. selection stressors

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 52

 

36) The press has been distorting the facts of a particular case on which a police officer is working. This is an example of:

  1. an organizational stressor
  2. an occupational stressor
  3. a criminal justice stressor
  4. a public stressor
  5. an extrinsic stressor

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 52

 

37) A police officer witnesses a fellow officer being killed in the line of duty. This is an example of:

  1. an organizational stressor
  2. an occupational stressor
  3. a criminal justice stressor
  4. a public stressor
  5. a police-specific stressor

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 52

 

38) According to Taylor and Bennell (2006) __________ stressors are often ranked as the most stressful among police officers.

  1. public
  2. criminal justice
  3. organizational
  4. extrinsic
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 53

 

39) Jared is frustrated in his job as a police officer due to inconsistent leadership from his superior officers, feeling like he always have to prove himself within his precinct, bureaucratic red tape, excessive paperwork, and feeling like there is no room for advancement. What type of stressor is influencing Jareds job the most?

  1. public
  2. criminal justice
  3. organizational
  4. occupational
  5. extrinsic

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 52

 

40) Possible consequences associated with police stress fall into three general categories. These are:

  1. physical health problems/psychological problems/job performance problems
  2. occupational/organizational/criminal justice
  3. adaptive/maladaptive/neutral
  4. proactive/reactive/inhibitory
  5. psychological/physical/mental

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 53-54

 

41) Recent research conducted by McCoy and Aamodt (2010) has compared the divorce rate amongst law enforcement personnel to the divorce rate in the general population. What did they find?

  1. The divorce rate amongst law enforcement personnel is higher than the divorce rate in the general population.
  2. The divorce rate amongst law enforcement personnel is lower than the divorce rate in the general population.
  3. The divorce rate amongst law enforcement personnel is equal to the divorce rate in the general population.
  4. Differences in divorce rates between the two groups existed, but only for people over the age of 50.
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 55

 

42) Which of the following would not be considered an adaptive coping strategy to deal with police stress?

  1. Effective communication with others
  2. Use of freeze-frame techniques
  3. Use of alcohol to relax and unwind
  4. Psychological debriefing
  5. Critical incident stress debriefing

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 55-56

 

Chapter 2: Short Answer

 

1) In general, there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process. Name these stages and explain them briefly.

 

Answer:

  1. The job analysis stage: the police agency must define the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) that characterize a good police officer
  2. The construction and validation stage: The police agency must develop instruments to measure the degree to which applicants possess these KSAs (i.e., construction) and determine the extent to which the applicants scores on these instruments correspond to actual police performance (i.e., validation).

 

Diff: Moderate

Type: ES

Page Reference: 30-33

 

2) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.

 

Answer:

  1. The selection interview: This is a semi-structured interview intended to determine the degree to which an applicant possesses the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) that characterize a good police officer.
  2. Psychological tests: These include tests of cognitive ability that tap into skills like memory and logic (e.g., RPAT) and personality tests that attempt to identify stress reactions, interpersonal styles, and psychopathological problems (e.g., MMPI).
  3. Assessment centres: This refers to facilities in which police-related behaviours can be observed by multiple raters usually in the context of simulated tasks (i.e., situational tests).

 

Diff: Moderate

Type: ES

Page Reference: 34-38

 

3) Define police discretion and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.

 

Answer:

  • Police discretion is the quality that enables officers to discriminate between those situations that require strict adherence to the law and those in which a certain amount of latitude is justified.
  • Typically, police officers are called upon to use a degree of discretion when dealing with cases of youth crime, mentally ill offenders, domestic disturbances, and cases involving the potential use of force.

 

Diff: Easy

Type: ES

Page Reference: 39, 41-44

 

4) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary, as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).

 

Answer:

  • A police officer who attempts to enforce all the laws all the time would be in the police station and in court all the time and thus of little use when serious problems arise in the community.
  • Legislatures pass some laws that they clearly do not intend to have strictly enforced all the time.
  • Legislatures pass some laws that are vague, making it necessary for the police to interpret them and decide when to apply them.
  • Most law violations are minor in nature, such as driving slightly over the posted speed limit, and do not require full enforcement of the law.
  • Full enforcement of all the laws all the time would alienate the public and undermine support for the police.
  • Full enforcement of all the laws all the time would overwhelm the criminal justice system, including the prisons.
  • The police have many duties to perform with limited resources; good judgment must therefore be used in establishing enforcement priorities.

 

Diff: Moderate

Type: ES

Page Reference: 40

 

5) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Halls (2008) study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?

 

Answer:

  • Use of force by the police was very rare, accounting for 0.07% of policepublic encounters.
  • Male subjects accounted for the vast majority (93.6%) of individuals where force was used.
  • Approximately 88% of subjects requiring force were under the influence of drugs and/or alcohol at the time or experiencing some degree of emotional distress.
  • The use of neck restraints, tasers, and batons on subjects rarely resulted in the need for medical attention, although batons were the most injurious force intervention technique examined in the study (29% of subjects where a baton was used required medical treatment).

 

Diff: Hard

Type: ES

Page Reference: 46

 

6) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance. What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.

 

Answer:

  1. The individual can be arrested and taken to jail.
    • This approach may result in the mentally ill offender being criminalized (i.e., dealt with by the criminal justice system when it may actually be more useful for this person to be treated in the mental health system).
  2. The individual can be taken to a psychiatric/mental health institution
    • Due to legal difficulties and/or bureaucratic obstacles, the mentally ill offender may be refused admittance.
  3. You can attempt to resolve the matter in an informal fashion.
    • This may only be a short-term solution given that the individual will likely not receiving the mental health care he or she requires.

 

Diff: Hard

Type: ES

Page Reference: 41-42

 

7) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.

 

Answer:

  1. Organizational stressors (e.g., excessive paperwork)
  2. Occupational stressors (e.g., exposure to human suffering)
  3. Criminal justice stressors (e.g., ineffectiveness of the courts)
  4. Public stressors (e.g., media distortions regarding certain cases)

 

Diff: Easy

Type: ES

Page Reference: 51-52

 

Chapter 14: Multiple Choice

 

1) Which of the following is not true regarding sexual offence statistics?

  1. In 2011 the rate of sex offences per 100 000 population was 50 000.
  2. Official statistics do not provide an accurate estimate of the true incidence of sex offences.
  3. Children and youth have high victimization rates.
  4. The majority of victims do not report sexual offences to the police.
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 381

 

2) In a study by Brennan and Taylor-Butts (2008), all of the following reasons have been found concerning why adult victims do not report sexual offences to the police except:

  1. Victims dont feel the matter is important enough
  2. Victims believe the matter already has been dealt with
  3. They feel the matter is too personal
  4. They fear the perpetrator will not be punished appropriately and will hurt them further.
  5. They simply dont want to involve the police

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 381

 

3) All of the following reasons have been found concerning why child victims do not report being sexually abused except:

  1. They are afraid of what will happen to them or their parents.
  2. They believe they are to blame for the abuse.
  3. They are not aware that what was happening was wrong.
  4. They are protecting a family member.
  5. They dont think they will be believed.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 381

 

4) The prevalence of childhood sexual abuse is highest for:

  1. Males
  2. Females
  3. Children aged 0-5
  4. Children aged 6-11
  5. Post-pubescent children

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 381

 

5) Which of the following types of sexual assault has the most serious maximum penalty?

  1. simple sexual assault
  2. aggravated sexual assault
  3. voyeurism
  4. exhibitionism
  5. sexual assault with a weapon

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 382

 

6) Sexual assault with a weapon or causing bodily harm carries what maximum sentence in Canada?

  1. 2 years
  2. 5 years
  3. 10 years
  4. 14 years
  5. life imprisonment

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 382

 

7) Which of the following is/are common consequence(s) of rape?

  1. sexual problems
  2. anxiety
  3. depression
  4. self-blame
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 382

 

8) _____________ refers to a group of symptoms or behaviours that are frequent after-effects of having been raped.

  1. Post-traumatic stress disorder
  2. Acute psychosis
  3. Chronic reactivity
  4. Rape trauma syndrome
  5. Victimization syndrome

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 382

 

9) According to the DSM-5, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) includes all of the following symptom clusters except:

  1. Recurrent intrusive distressing memories
  2. Negative alterations in moods and cognitions
  3. Exaggeration and confabulation of physical ailments
  4. Persistent avoidance of stimuli
  5. Marked alterations in arousal and reactivity

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 383

 

10) Which of the following is true regarding rape myths?

  1. Rape myths are beliefs people have about rape that are based on empirical evidence.
  2. Asian students are the least likely to accept rape myths.
  3. Men are more accepting of rape myths than women are.
  4. One common rape myth is that sex offences are often committed by people the victim knows.
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 383

 

11) Which of the following is not a myth associated with sexual assault?

  1. Sexual assault is most often committed by someone you know.
  2. Sexual assault is not a common problem.
  3. Women who are sexually assaulted are asking for it by the way they dress or act.
  4. Women lie about sexual assault.
  5. Avoid being alone in dark or deserted places as this will protect you from being sexually assaulted.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 383

 

12) Obtaining sexual gratification by watching others naked, undressing, or engaging in sexual activity is called:

  1. fetishism
  2. exhibitionism
  3. voyeurism
  4. frotteurism
  5. necrophilia

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 384

 

13) Casey is known to the police for being an individual that likes to expose his genitals to people in public in order to obtain sexual gratification. Casey would be categorized as what type of sexual offender?

  1. Fetishist
  2. Exhibitionist
  3. Voyeur
  4. Frotteur
  5. Necrophiliac

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 384

 

14) No-contact sexual offenders include which type of sexual offending?

  1. Intra-familial child molester
  2. Rapist
  3. Extra=familial child molester
  4. Voyeur
  5. Pedophile

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 384

 

15) According to Groths rapist typology, which type of rapist has the intention to assert dominance and control over the victim?

  1. anger
  2. vindictive
  3. power
  4. sadistic
  5. opportunistic

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 386

 

16) According to Groths rapist typology, which type of rapist obtains sexual gratification by hurting the victim?

  1. anger
  2. vindictive
  3. power
  4. sadistic
  5. opportunistic

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 386

 

17) According to Groths rapist typology, which type of rapist is not motivated primarily by sexual gratification?

  1. anger
  2. vindictive
  3. power
  4. sadistic
  5. both a and c

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 386

 

18) According to the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC:R3), which type of rapist is primarily motivated by sexual preoccupation or sexual fantasies?

  1. Pervasively angry
  2. Sadistic
  3. Vindictive
  4. Sexual
  5. Opportunistic

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 384-385

 

19) According to the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC:R3), which type of rapist exhibits a high degree of anger directed solely at women?

  1. Pervasively angry
  2. Sadistic
  3. Vindictive
  4. Sexual
  5. Opportunistic

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 384-385

 

20) Frederick was engaging in a break and enter to steal valuables, but encountered an attractive female occupant and decided to rape her. According to the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC:R3), which type of rapist would Frederick be classified as?

  1. Pervasively angry
  2. Sadistic
  3. Vindictive
  4. Sexual
  5. Opportunistic

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 384-385

 

21) Jayson is an impulsive man who has engaged in several rapes. During these attacks, he often uses unnecessary force to teach his victim a lesson resulting in serious victim injuries, but he does not have sexual fantasies about his crimes. According to the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC:R3), which type of rapist would Jayson be classified as?

  1. Pervasively angry
  2. Sadistic
  3. Vindictive
  4. Sexual
  5. Opportunistic

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 384-385

 

22) In general, research on the outcomes of resisting sexual attacks has found that:

  1. Forceful resistance strategies (verbal or physical) increase the likelihood of rape completion.
  2. Women who resist rape in any way are more likely to suffer injuries relative to women who dont resist.
  3. Non-forceful resistance strategies (pleading, crying, reasoning with the offender) increase the likelihood of rape completion.
  4. There is no association between victim resistance and the likelihood of rape completion.
  5. Women who resisted rapes when the offender had a weapon suffered less physical injuries.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 385

 

23) Which of the following is one of the features of regressed child molesters?

  1. Their sexual interest in children begins in adulthood.
  2. Their offences are planned.
  3. Male children are their primary targets.
  4. They are emotionally immature.
  5. They often feel no remorse over their behaviour.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 386-387

 

24) Which of the following is not one of the features of the fixated child molester?

  1. Their sexual interest in children begins in adolescence and is persistent.
  2. Their offences are planned.
  3. Male children are their primary targets.
  4. They are emotionally immature.
  5. They usually have a history of alcohol or drug abuse.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 386-387

 

25) Jerome is a sexual offender who preys on female children, often when his adult relationships fail. He often is drunk when the offending happens and feels regret for his actions after the fact. What type of sexual offender is Jerome according to Groths typology?

  1. Immature rapist
  2. Regressed child molester
  3. Fixated child molester
  4. Impulsive rapist
  5. Exploitative rapist

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 386-387

 

26) Which type of child molester is most likely to use persuasion or entrapment to make a child feel obligated to participate in sexual acts?

  1. Immature rapist
  2. Regressed child molester
  3. Fixated child molester
  4. Sex-pressure molesters
  5. Sex-force molesters

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 387

 

27) Which of the following statements is true regarding adolescent sexual offenders?

  1. Adolescent sexual offenders are often victims of sexual abuse themselves.
  2. The majority of sexually abused children go on to become adolescent or adult sexual offenders.
  3. Prior history of childhood sexual victimization is related to sexual recidivism in adolescence and adulthood.
  4. Adolescent sexual offenders tend to victimize adult females.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 388

 

28) In a recent meta-analysis by Seto and Lalumire (2010), adolescent sex offenders were found to be similar to other adolescent offenders on the majority of risk factors, except for the following additional risk factors present in adolescent sexual offenders:

  1. Education, lack of parental supervision, atypical sexual interests
  2. Video game use, exposure to pornography, lack of parental supervision
  3. History of sexual abuse, exposure to pornography, atypical sexual interests
  4. History of sexual abuse, education level, sexual rejection
  5. Sexual rejection, atypical sexual interests, poor socialization

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 388

 

29) Recent research by Beck, Boys, Rose, and Beck (2012) on rape myth acceptance on video games has reported the following relationship:

  1. Video games that depict violence against women lead to decreased acceptance of rape myths.
  2. Video games that depict prosocial attitudes towards women lead to decreased acceptance of rape myths.
  3. Video games that depict objectification of women and violence towards women lead to increased rape-myth attitudes.
  4. Video games depicting violence against women decrease levels of real-life aggression against women exhibited.
  5. There is no relationship between video game play and acceptance of rape myths.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 389

 

30) Mary is a middle-aged woman who has been convicted of two counts of sexual assault on her own five-year-old son. She has a history of childhood sexual abuse and prior to the sexual assaults she was living with an abusive male spouse. Mary would likely be classified as what type of female sex offender?

  1. family-only
  2. male-coerced
  3. predisposed
  4. teacher/lover
  5. borderline/dysphoric

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 390-391

 

31) With her husband Peter, Paula has engaged in sexual abuse against their own children as well as children that she provides daycare services for. Paula would most likely be classified as what type of female sexual offender?

  1. male-accompanied
  2. male-coerced
  3. predisposed
  4. teacher/lover
  5. borderline/dysphoric

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 390-391

 

32) According to the classification system devised by Wijkman, Bijleveld, and Hendriks (2011), the majority of female sexual offenders fit into which of the following categories?

  1. Male-accompanied group
  2. Generalist group
  3. Once-only group
  4. Teacher/love group
  5. Specialist group

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 391

 

33) Evolutionary theories of sexual offending focus on:

  1. the offenders ability to overcome a childs resistance
  2. the offenders level of maturity
  3. how sexual offending may be a way of enhancing reproductive success
  4. childhood experiences
  5. emotional dysregulation

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 393-394

 

34) Which of the following is not one of Finkelhors (1984) preconditions of sexual offending?

  1. Motivation to sexually abuse
  2. Emotional and sexual arousal
  3. Lack of internal inhibitions
  4. Lack of external inhibitions
  5. Overcoming the childs resistance

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 393

 

35) Kevin often has difficulty controlling his emotions and uses sex and rape as an emotional coping strategy. According to Ward and Siegerts (2002) pathway model of child sexual abuse, Kevins behaviour reflects which pathway?

  1. Reproductive strategy
  2. Disinhibition
  3. Resistance rejection
  4. Childhood experiences
  5. Emotional dysregulation

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 393

 

36) In their integrated model of sexual aggression, Marshall and Barbaree (1990) proposed that sexually aggressive behaviours result from a combination of all of the following factors except:

  1. Childhood experiences
  2. Biological factors
  3. Cognitions and attitudes
  4. Sociocultural influences
  5. Situational events

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 393

 

37) Which of the following is not typically a target in the treatment of sexual offenders?

  1. substance-abuse problems
  2. cognitive distortions
  3. socioeconomic status
  4. victim empathy
  5. minimizations

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 395

 

38) Research by Nunes et al. (2007) has demonstrated that _____________ is related to increased sexual recidivism in low-risk sexual offenders.

  1. substance-abuse problems
  2. cognitive distortions
  3. denial
  4. victim empathy
  5. minimizations

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 395

 

39) Which of the following statements is an example of a cognitive distortion exhibited by a sexual offender?

  1. Having sex with a child in a loving relationship is a good way to teach a child about sex.
  2. I was drunk and I didnt know what I was doing.
  3. The victim wanted to have sex with me.
  4. The victim didnt really suffer so it wasnt wrong.
  5. The victim didnt explicitly ever tell me no.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 395

 

40) Which of the following social skills have been found to be lacking in sexual offenders?

  1. Self-confidence
  2. Capacity for intimacy
  3. Assertiveness
  4. Dealing with anger
  5. All of the above are social skills that are lacking.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 397

 

41) ________________ typically show phallometric responses that are similar to those of non-offenders.

  1. Pedophiles
  2. Intra-familial child molesters
  3. Extra-familial child molesters
  4. Sadistic rapists
  5. None of the above

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 397

 

42) The _____________ approach has been used to pair the inability to become sexually aroused to deviant fantasies when required to ejaculate to non-deviant fantasies first.

  1. penile phallometry
  2. aversion therapy
  3. masturbatory satiation
  4. chemical castration
  5. ejaculatory inhibition

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 397-398

 

43) The treatment approach that attempts to reduce recidivism among sex offenders by increasing self-awareness of factors that place them at high risk to reoffend and teaching them how to manage these high-risk situations is called:

  1. behavioural reconditioning
  2. reinforcement contingency training
  3. relapse prevention
  4. empathy training
  5. No treatment program has attempted to target these factors.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 398-399

 

44) In the context of relapse prevention, any occurrence of fantasizing about sexual offending would be considered:

  1. a lapse
  2. a relapse
  3. an abstinence violation effect
  4. a coping response
  5. an offence

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 398

 

45) In the context of relapse prevention, interpreting a lapse as an irreversible failure is an example of:

  1. a lapse
  2. a relapse
  3. an abstinence violation effect
  4. a coping response
  5. an offence

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 398

 

46) According to a meta-analysis conducted by Hanson et al. (2002), which of the following statements is false regarding the treatment of sex offenders?

  1. Newer treatments like cognitive behavioural therapy are more effective than older forms of treatment.
  2. Treatment is significantly more effective with adolescent sex offenders than with adult sex offenders.
  3. Both community and institutional treatment are associated with a decrease in recidivism.
  4. Sex offenders who drop out of treatment programs have higher recidivism rates than those who complete treatment programs.
  5. Sex offenders who refuse any form of treatment have higher recidivism rates than those who complete treatment programs.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 399-400

 

47) In a study by Olver, Stockdale, and Wormith (2011), treatment attrition in sexual offenders is related to all of the following variables except:

  1. Denial
  2. Negative treatment attitudes
  3. Number of prior offences
  4. Level of motivation
  5. Affective disorders

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 399-400

 

Chapter 14: Short Answer

 

1) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text, including facts that challenge these false beliefs.

 

Answer:

Myth 1: Sexual assault is not a common problem.

One in every four women and one in every six men have experienced some type of sexual assault. You likely know someone who has been sexually assaulted.

 

Myth 2: Sexual assault is most often committed by strangers.

Women face the greatest risk of sexual assault from men they know, not from strangers. About half of all rapes occur in dating relationships. In about 80% of cases, victims of sexual assault knew the attacker.

 

Myth 3: Women who are sexually assaulted ask for it by the way they dress or act.

Victims of sexual assault range across the age span (from infants to elderly), and sexual assaults can occur in almost any situation. No woman deserves to be sexually assaulted, regardless of what she wears, where she goes, or how she acts. Blaming sexual assault on how a victim behaves would be like blaming a mugging on a person for carrying a wallet.

 

Myth 4: Avoid being alone in dark, deserted places, such as parks or parking lots, and this will protect you from being sexually assaulted.

Most sexual assaults occur in a private home and many in the victims home.

 

Myth 5: Women lie about sexual assault.

False accusations happen but are very rare. Sexual assault is a vastly under-reported crime, and most sexual assaults are not reported to the police.

Diff: Moderate

Type: ES

Page Reference: 383

 

2) Groth (1979) proposed a threefold rapist typology. Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists, focusing on each rapists goals, the amount of force used, and the primary motivations.

 

Answer:

  • Anger rapist: goal is to unleash anger directed at women; uses more force than necessary to obtain compliance; motivated by anger and not by sexual gratification
  • Power rapist: goal is to assert dominance and control over victim; amount of force used depends on victim compliance; frequent rape fantasies but generally not motivated by sexual gratification, but rather the need to dominate women
  • Sadistic rapist: goal is to obtain sexual gratification by hurting the victim; high levels of aggression, torture, perhaps even death; frequent violent sexual fantasies

 

Diff: Moderate

Type: ES

Page Reference: 386

 

3) Knight and Prentky (1990) developed the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC: R3) which consists of five primary subtypes of rapists. Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists, focusing on each rapists motivational differences.

 

Answer:

  1. The opportunistic type commits sexual assault that is generally impulsive, void of sexual fantasies, controlled primarily by situational or contextual factors, and void of gratuitous violence. These offenders often engage in other criminal behaviours. For

example, a rapist who breaks into a home with the intention of stealing but who rapes the female occupant could be classified as opportunistic.

 

  1. The pervasively angry type has a high level of anger that is directed toward both men

and women. These offenders tend to be impulsive, use unnecessary force, cause serious victim injury, and be void of sexual fantasies.

 

  1. The sexual type is distinguished from the other types in that these offenders crimes are primarily motivated by sexual preoccupation or sexual fantasies.

 

  1. The sadistic type is differentiated from the sexual type in that there must be a sadistic element to the offence.

 

  1. The fifth type is labelled vindictive. In contrast to the pervasively angry type, the vindictive rapists anger is focused solely on women. These offenders are not impulsive, nor are they preoccupied by sexual fantasies. The goal of this type of rapist is to demean and degrade the victim.

 

Diff: Hard

Type: ES

Page Reference: 384-385

 

4) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.

 

Answer:

  • Fixated child molester
    1. Primary sexual orientation is toward children (i.e., little or no sexual contact with adults)
    2. Sexual interest in children begins in adolescence and is persistent
    3. Male children are primary targets
    4. No evidence of precipitating stress
    5. Offences are planned
    6. Emotionally immature, poor social skills, usually single
    7. Typically no history of substance abuse
    8. No distress or remorse over behaviour
  • Regressed child molester
    1. Primary sexual orientation toward adults
    2. Sexual interests begins in adulthood; episodic
    3. Female children are primary targets
    4. Precipitating stress and feelings of inadequacy
    5. Offences are impulsive
    6. Often married and experiencing marital problems
    7. Offences often related to alcohol use
    8. More likely to report remorse for behaviour

 

Diff: Moderate

Type: ES

Page Reference: 386-387

 

5) List the four types of female sexual offenders identified by Atkinson (1996). Describe each in terms of their offending behaviour and their backgrounds.

 

Answer:

  1. Teacher/lover. These offenders initiate sexual abuse of a male adolescent whom they relate to as a peer. The offender is often in a position of authority or power. It is unknown how common this type of female sex offender is because the victim rarely reports the abuse to authorities. This type has not likely experienced childhood sexual abuse, although substance-use problems are common. These offenders often are not aware that their behaviour is inappropriate. Teacher/lovers often describe themselves as being in love with the victim. Victims often report they participated voluntarily and do not feel victimized.

 

  1. Male-coerced. These offenders are coerced or forced into sexual abuse by an abusive male. Often the victim is the female offenders own daughter. These offenders are unassertive, are dependent on men, and are relatively passive partners in the abuse.

 

  1. Male-accompanied. These offenders also engage in sexual abuse with a male partner. However, they are more willing participants than are the male-coerced type. Victims are both inside and outside the family.

 

  1. Predisposed. This offender initiates the sexual abuse alone. She has often experienced severe and persistent childhood sexual abuse and has been a victim of intimate violence. This type often reports having deviant sexual fantasies, the offences are more violent and bizarre, and they typically involve younger children. Victims are often their own children, and they also frequently physically abuse and neglect the victim.

Diff: Hard

Type: ES

Page Reference: 386-387

 

6) According to Finkelhors (1984) theory of child molesting, what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?

 

Answer:

  • The offender must be motivated to sexually abuse.
  • The offender must lack internal inhibitions (e.g., due to alcohol use or impulse-control problems).
  • The offender must overcome external inhibitors for the abuse to occur (e.g., they must create opportunities to be alone with a child).
  • The offender must overcome the childs resistance (e.g., by rewarding or bribing the child in order to encourage cooperation).

 

Diff: Moderate

Type: ES

Page Reference: 393

 

7) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests, as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.

 

Answer:

One of the most popular methods to assess deviant sexual interests is the use of penile phallometry. Penile phallometry involves placing a measurement device around the penis to measure changes in sexual arousal. To measure deviant sexual interests in child molesters, photos of naked male and female children and adults are presented, as well as rapists recorded descriptions of nondeviant and deviant sexual behaviour.

 

Many different techniques have been developed to train offenders to eliminate deviant

thoughts and interests and to increase the frequency of appropriate sexual thoughts and interests. For example, in aversion therapy, the offender is sometimes given an aversive substance to smell (e.g., ammonia) whenever he has a deviant sexual fantasy. The underlying goal is to reduce the attractiveness of these deviant fantasies by pairing them with a negative event.

 

Another approach is called masturbatory satiation. In this treatment, the offender is told to masturbate to ejaculation to a nondeviant fantasy. After ejaculation, he is told to

switch to a deviant fantasy, thus pairing the inability to become aroused to this deviant fantasy. The effectiveness of these techniques to change deviant sexual interests has been questioned by several researchers (Quinsey & Earls, 1990).

Diff: Moderate

Type: ES

Page Reference: 397

 

8) Describe the two main components of relapse prevention programs aimed at sexual offenders. In addition, distinguish between the terms lapse, relapse, and abstinence violation effect in the context of relapse prevention programs.

 

Answer:

  • Components of relapse prevention program:
    1. Offenders must list emotional and situational risk factors that lead to either fantasizing about sexual abuse or actually committing sexual abuse.
    2. Offenders must develop a plan to learn appropriate coping and avoidance strategies to deal with potentially high-risk situations.
  • Lapse: any occurrence of fantasizing about sexual offending or engaging in behaviours that are part of the offence cycle
  • Relapse: occurrence of a sexual offence
  • Abstinence violation effect: manner in which the offender reacts to a lapse

 

Diff: Moderate

Type: ES

Page Reference: 398-399

 

 

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