Anything that occupies space and has mass is called
A. an electron.
B. living.
C. matter.
D. energy.
E. space.
The electrons of an atom are
A. always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom.
B. found in the nucleus.
C. used to determine atomic number.
D. positively charged.
E. moving in pathways called orbitals.
All of the following pertain to the atom C except it
A. has 6 protons.
B. has 6 electrons.
C. has 14 neutrons.
D. is an isotope of carbon.
E. mass number is 14.
The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the
A. electrons.
B. protons.
C. neutrons.
D. protons and neutrons.
E. protons and electrons.
Cations are
A. charged subatomic particles.
B. atoms that have gained electrons.
C. radioactive isotopes.
D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions.
E. atoms without protons.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their
A. neutron number.
B. electron number.
C. proton number.
D. atomic number.
E. chemical properties.
What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 18
E. 32
Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an
A. ion.
B. isotope.
C. element.
D. electrolyte.
E. molecule.
What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom S?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded
A. identical atoms.
B. carbon atoms.
C. ions.
D. atoms of different electronegativity.
E. atoms of identical electronegativity.
Reactions involving electron release are called
A. oxidation.
B. reduction.
C. ionization.
D. decomposition.
E. dissolution.
Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?
A. AB A + B
B. A + B AB
C. AB + XY AX + BY
D. AB + XY AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct.
The important solvent associated with living things is
A. carbon dioxide.
B. sodium chloride.
C. ethyl alcohol.
D. benzene.
E. water.
Which term does not belong in this list?
A. lactic acid
B. vinegar
C. hydrogen ion donor
D. pH 8
E. acidic
A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
A. is more basic.
B. has no OH ions.
C. has more H+ ions.
D. has a higher pH.
E. All of the choices are correct.
What do H2O, NaCl, CO2, and HCl all have in common?
A. all salts
B. all acids
C. all gases
D. all inorganic
E. all solutes
Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound?
A. phosphate carbohydrates
B. sulfhydryl proteins
C. amino proteins
D. hydroxyl alcohols
E. carboxyl fatty acids
The building blocks of an enzyme are
A. nucleotides.
B. glycerol and fatty acids.
C. monosaccharides.
D. phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids.
E. amino acids.
All of the following are monosaccharides except
A. glucose.
B. glycogen.
C. fructose.
D. ribose.
E. deoxyribose.
All of the following are lipids except
A. cholesterol.
B. starch.
C. phospholipid.
D. wax.
E. triglyceride.
A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have _____ hydrogen atoms and _____ oxygen atoms.
A. 10, 5
B. 5, 10
C. 5, 5
D. 10, 10
E. 2, 1
One nucleotide contains
A. one phosphate.
B. one pentose.
C. one nitrogen base.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. None of the choices are correct.
Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?
A. triglycerides
B. monosaccharides
C. polypeptides
D. polysaccharides
E. ATP
All of the following are polysaccharides except
A. dextran in some bacterial slime layers.
B. agar used to make solid culture media.
C. a cells glycocalyx.
D. cellulose in certain cell walls.
E. prostaglandins in inflammation.
What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails?
A. fatty acids
B. glycerol
C. phosphate
D. alcohol
E. All of the choices are correct.
An amino acid contains all of the following except
A. an amino group.
B. a carboxyl group.
C. a variable R group.
D. an a carbon.
E. a nitrogen base.
Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA?
A. contains ribose
B. contains adenine
C. contains thymine
D. contains uracil
E. contains nucleotides
ATP is best described as
A. an enzyme.
B. a double helix.
C. an electron carrier.
D. the energy molecule of cells.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which is not true about enzymes?
A. found in all cells
B. are catalysts
C. participate in the cells chemical reactions
D. can be denaturated by heat and other agents
E. have high-energy bonds between phosphates
Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds in its tertiary structure?
A. valine
B. cysteine
C. serine
D. alanine
E. tyrosine
The term that refers to all of the genetic material of the cell is
A. replication.
B. DNA.
C. chromosomes.
D. metabolism.
E. genome.
All of the following are processes that define life except
A. ability to invade host cells.
B. growth.
C. reproduction and heredity.
D. metabolism.
E. movement and/or irritability.
The orderly division of chromosomes during eucaryotic cell division is called
A. mitosis.
B. motility.
C. metabolism.
D. cell transport.
E. reproduction.
A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose?
A. amino acids
B. hydrogen and oxygen atoms
C. nitrogen and phosphorus
D. fatty acids
E. carbon atoms
C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 C12 H22O11 + H2O represents
A. formation of a peptide bond.
B. a decomposition reaction.
C. denaturation.
D. formation of a polysaccharide.
E. dehydration synthesis.
The atomic number equals the number of __________ an atom possesses.
A. neutrons
B. protons
C. electrons
D. neutrons plus protons
E. electrons plus protons
If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 14
E. impossible to determine
The neutrons of an atom are
A. always equal to the number of protons in an atom.
B. are found in the nucleus.
C. are used to determine atomic number.
D. are positively charged.
E. are moving in pathways called orbitals.
Which of the following represents an exchange reaction?
A. AB A + B
B. A + B AB
C. X + Y XYD
D. AB + XY AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct.
Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution. How much NaCl should he weigh out?
A. 0.4 grams
B. 4. grams
C. 40 grams
D. 400 grams
E. None of the choices are correct.
How many times more acidic is a solution with a pH of 3 than a solution with a pH of 6?
A. 3
B. 10
C. 1000
D. 36
E. 63
Which of the following carbohydrates is found in dairy?
A. lactose
B. sucrose
C. maltose
D. glucose
E. fructose
Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals?
A. glycogen
B. maltose
C. starch
D. cellulose
E. galactose
All of the following are correct about triglycerides except
A. they are insoluble in water.
B. they are a concentrated source of energy.
C. when they are unsaturated they are solid.
D. they dissolve in nonpolar solvents.
E. they are digested by lipases.
The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a
A. glycosidic bond.
B. peptide bond.
C. ester bond.
D. ionic bond.
E. hydrogen bond.
The a helix and b-pleated sheet are examples of
A. primary structure.
B. secondary structure.
C. tertiary structure.
D. quaternary structure.
E. gamma structures.
The polynucleotide strands of DNA are linked along their length by __________ bonds between the bases.
A. covalent
B. ionic
C. Van der Waals
D. double
E. hydrogen
A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation.
True False
Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus.
True False
Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds.
True False
Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
True False
Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules.
True False
Elements have predictable chemical properties.
True False
The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present.
True False
If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B.
True False
The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.
True False
All proteins are enzymes.
True False
Replication is the cellular mechanism for making a copy of its DNA.
True False
Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization.
True False
The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its _____ number.
________________________________________
Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called _____.
________________________________________
Protons and neutrons make up the atoms central core referred to as its _____.
________________________________________
A solution is composed of one or more substances called _____ that are uniformly dispersed in a dissolving medium called a _____.
________________________________________
Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms.
________________________________________
_____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids.
________________________________________
A fat is called _____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens.
________________________________________
Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all _____.
________________________________________
During protein synthesis, _____ RNA is made to be a copy of a gene from the DNA.
________________________________________
In _____ reproduction, offspring arise from the division of a single parent cell into two identical progeny cells.
________________________________________
Certain antibiotics are effective against bacteria that cause human infections because they target procaryotic ribosomes. Discuss, in detail, how the drug attacking a pathogens ribosomes will affect the cell. Discuss at least 3 specific detrimental results.
Explain what radioisotopes are, and describe how they can be used to monitor the uptake of a specific biochemical by a microbial culture.
Compare and contrast the chemical and functional characteristics of DNA and RNA molecules.
2 Key
Anything that occupies space and has mass is called
A.an electron.
B. living. C. matter.
D. energy.
E. space.
Talaro 002 Chapter #1
The electrons of an atom are
A.always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom.
B. found in the nucleus.
C. used to determine atomic number.
D. positively charged. E. moving in pathways called orbitals.
Talaro 002 Chapter #2
All of the following pertain to the atom C except it
A. has 6 protons.
B. has 6 electrons. C. has 14 neutrons.
D. is an isotope of carbon.
E. mass number is 14.
Talaro 002 Chapter #3
The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the A.electrons.
B. protons.
C. neutrons.
D. protons and neutrons.
E. protons and electrons.
Talaro 002 Chapter #4
Cations are
A.charged subatomic particles.
B. atoms that have gained electrons.
C. radioactive isotopes. D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions.
E. atoms without protons.
Talaro 002 Chapter #5
Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their A.neutron number.
B. electron number.
C. proton number.
D. atomic number.
E. chemical properties.
Talaro 002 Chapter #6
What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?
A.2
B. 4 C. 8
D. 18
E. 32
Talaro 002 Chapter #7
Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an
A.ion.
B. isotope.
C. element.
D. electrolyte. E. molecule.
Talaro 002 Chapter #8
What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom S?
A. 2 B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
Talaro 002 Chapter #9
Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded
A.identical atoms.
B. carbon atoms.
C. ions. D. atoms of different electronegativity.
E. atoms of identical electronegativity.
Talaro 002 Chapter #10
Reactions involving electron release are called A.oxidation.
B. reduction.
C. ionization.
D. decomposition.
E. dissolution.
Talaro 002 Chapter #11
Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?
A.AB A + B B. A + B AB
C. AB + XY AX + BY
D. AB + XY AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct.
Talaro 002 Chapter #12
The important solvent associated with living things is
A.carbon dioxide.
B. sodium chloride.
C. ethyl alcohol.
D. benzene. E. water.
Talaro 002 Chapter #13
Which term does not belong in this list?
A.lactic acid
B. vinegar
C. hydrogen ion donor D. pH 8
E. acidic
Talaro 002 Chapter #14
A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
A.is more basic.
B. has no OH ions. C. has more H+ ions.
D. has a higher pH.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Talaro 002 Chapter #15
What do H2O, NaCl, CO2, and HCl all have in common?
A.all salts
B. all acids
C. all gases D. all inorganic
E. all solutes
Talaro 002 Chapter #16
Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound? A.phosphate carbohydrates
B. sulfhydryl proteins
C. amino proteins
D. hydroxyl alcohols
E. carboxyl fatty acids
Talaro 002 Chapter #17
The building blocks of an enzyme are
A.nucleotides.
B. glycerol and fatty acids.
C. monosaccharides.
D. phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids. E. amino acids.
Talaro 002 Chapter #18
All of the following are monosaccharides except
A. glucose. B. glycogen.
C. fructose.
D. ribose.
E. deoxyribose.
Talaro 002 Chapter #19
All of the following are lipids except
A. cholesterol. B. starch.
C. phospholipid.
D. wax.
E. triglyceride.
Talaro 002 Chapter #20
A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have _____ hydrogen atoms and _____ oxygen atoms. A.10, 5
B. 5, 10
C. 5, 5
D. 10, 10
E. 2, 1
Talaro 002 Chapter #21
One nucleotide contains
A.one phosphate.
B. one pentose.
C. one nitrogen base. D. All of the choices are correct.
E. None of the choices are correct.
Talaro 002 Chapter #22
Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?
A.triglycerides
B. monosaccharides
C. polypeptides D. polysaccharides
E. ATP
Talaro 002 Chapter #23
All of the following are polysaccharides except
A. dextran in some bacterial slime layers.
B. agar used to make solid culture media.
C. a cells glycocalyx.
D. cellulose in certain cell walls. E. prostaglandins in inflammation.
Talaro 002 Chapter #24
What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails? A.fatty acids
B. glycerol
C. phosphate
D. alcohol
E. All of the choices are correct.
Talaro 002 Chapter #25
An amino acid contains all of the following except
A. an amino group.
B. a carboxyl group.
C. a variable R group.
D. an a carbon. E. a nitrogen base.
Talaro 002 Chapter #26
Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA?
A.contains ribose
B. contains adenine C. contains thymine
D. contains uracil
E. contains nucleotides
Talaro 002 Chapter #27
ATP is best described as
A.an enzyme.
B. a double helix.
C. an electron carrier. D. the energy molecule of cells.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Talaro 002 Chapter #28
Which is not true about enzymes?
A.found in all cells
B. are catalysts
C. participate in the cells chemical reactions
D. can be denaturated by heat and other agents E. have high-energy bonds between phosphates
Talaro 002 Chapter #29
Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds in its tertiary structure?
A.valine B. cysteine
C. serine
D. alanine
E. tyrosine
Talaro 002 Chapter #30
The term that refers to all of the genetic material of the cell is
A.replication.
B. DNA.
C. chromosomes.
D. metabolism. E. genome.
Talaro 002 Chapter #31
All of the following are processes that define life except A. ability to invade host cells.
B. growth.
C. reproduction and heredity.
D. metabolism.
E. movement and/or irritability.
Talaro 002 Chapter #32
The orderly division of chromosomes during eucaryotic cell division is called A.mitosis.
B. motility.
C. metabolism.
D. cell transport.
E. reproduction.
Talaro 002 Chapter #33
A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose?
A.amino acids
B. hydrogen and oxygen atoms C. nitrogen and phosphorus
D. fatty acids
E. carbon atoms
Talaro 002 Chapter #34
C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 C12 H22O11 + H2O represents
A.formation of a peptide bond.
B. a decomposition reaction.
C. denaturation.
D. formation of a polysaccharide. E. dehydration synthesis.
Talaro 002 Chapter #35
The atomic number equals the number of __________ an atom possesses.
A.neutrons B. protons
C. electrons
D. neutrons plus protons
E. electrons plus protons
Talaro 002 Chapter #36
If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have?
A.6
B. 7 C. 8
D. 14
E. impossible to determine
Talaro 002 Chapter #37
The neutrons of an atom are
A.always equal to the number of protons in an atom. B. are found in the nucleus.
C. are used to determine atomic number.
D. are positively charged.
E. are moving in pathways called orbitals.
Talaro 002 Chapter #38
Which of the following represents an exchange reaction?
A.AB A + B
B. A + B AB
C. X + Y XYD D. AB + XY AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct.
Talaro 002 Chapter #39
Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution. How much NaCl should he weigh out?
A.0.4 grams
B. 4. grams C. 40 grams
D. 400 grams
E. None of the choices are correct.
Talaro 002 Chapter #40
How many times more acidic is a solution with a pH of 3 than a solution with a pH of 6?
A.3
B. 10 C. 1000
D. 36
E. 63
Talaro 002 Chapter #41
Which of the following carbohydrates is found in dairy? A.lactose
B. sucrose
C. maltose
D. glucose
E. fructose
Talaro 002 Chapter #42
Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals? A.glycogen
B. maltose
C. starch
D. cellulose
E. galactose
Talaro 002 Chapter #43
All of the following are correct about triglycerides except
A. they are insoluble in water.
B. they are a concentrated source of energy. C. when they are unsaturated they are solid.
D. they dissolve in nonpolar solvents.
E. they are digested by lipases.
Talaro 002 Chapter #44
The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a
A.glycosidic bond. B. peptide bond.
C. ester bond.
D. ionic bond.
E. hydrogen bond.
Talaro 002 Chapter #45
The a helix and b-pleated sheet are examples of
A.primary structure. B. secondary structure.
C. tertiary structure.
D. quaternary structure.
E. gamma structures.
Talaro 002 Chapter #46
The polynucleotide strands of DNA are linked along their length by __________ bonds between the bases. A.covalent
B. ionic
C. Van der Waals
D. double
E. hydrogen
Talaro 002 Chapter #47
A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation. FALSE
Talaro 002 Chapter #48
Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus. FALSE
Talaro 002 Chapter #49
Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds. TRUE
Talaro 002 Chapter #50
Water molecules are nonpolar molecules. FALSE
Talaro 002 Chapter #51
Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules. TRUE
Talaro 002 Chapter #52
Elements have predictable chemical properties. TRUE
Talaro 002 Chapter #53
The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present. FALSE
Talaro 002 Chapter #54
If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B. TRUE
Talaro 002 Chapter #55
The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group. TRUE
Talaro 002 Chapter #56
All proteins are enzymes. FALSE
Talaro 002 Chapter #57
Replication is the cellular mechanism for making a copy of its DNA. TRUE
Talaro 002 Chapter #58
Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization. FALSE
Talaro 002 Chapter #59
The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its _____ number. Mass
Talaro 002 Chapter #60
Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called _____. Ions
Talaro 002 Chapter #61
Protons and neutrons make up the atoms central core referred to as its _____. Nucleus
Talaro 002 Chapter #62
A solution is composed of one or more substances called _____ that are uniformly dispersed in a dissolving medium called a _____. Solutes, Solvent
Talaro 002 Chapter #63
Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms. Carbon
Talaro 002 Chapter #64
_____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids. Peptide
Talaro 002 Chapter #65
A fat is called _____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens. Saturated
Talaro 002 Chapter #66
Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all _____. Nucleic Acids
Talaro 002 Chapter #67
During protein synthesis, _____ RNA is made to be a copy of a gene from the DNA. Messenger
Talaro 002 Chapter #68
In _____ reproduction, offspring arise from the division of a single parent cell into two identical progeny cells. Asexual
Talaro 002 Chapter #69
Certain antibiotics are effective against bacteria that cause human infections because they target procaryotic ribosomes. Discuss, in detail, how the drug attacking a pathogens ribosomes will affect the cell. Discuss at least 3 specific detrimental results.
Answers may vary.
Talaro 002 Chapter #70
Explain what radioisotopes are, and describe how they can be used to monitor the uptake of a specific biochemical by a microbial culture.
Answers may vary.
Talaro 002 Chapter #71
Compare and contrast the chemical and functional characteristics of DNA and RNA molecules.
Which is mismatched?
A. Fleming penicillin
B. Domagk sulfonamide
C. Ehrlich tetracycline
D. Florey and Chain penicillin
E. None of the choices are correct.
Salvarsan was
A. discovered in the mid-1900s.
B. used to treat syphilis.
C. formulated from the red dye prontosil.
D. first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum.
E. discovered by Robert Koch.
Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called
A. antibiotics.
B. narrow-spectrum drugs.
C. semisynthetic drugs.
D. synthetic drugs.
E. broad-spectrum drugs
Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
A. antibiotics.
B. narrow-spectrum drugs.
C. semisynthetic drugs.
D. synthetic drugs.
E. broad-spectrum drugs.
Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
A. Penicillium.
B. Bacillus.
C. Staphylococcus.
D. Streptomyces.
E. Cephalosporium.
Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
A. low toxicity for human tissues.
B. high toxicity against microbial cells.
C. do not cause serious side effects in humans.
D. stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the bodys normal flora often cause
A. nephrotoxicity.
B. superinfections.
C. allergic reactions.
D. drug toxicity.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Penicillins and cephalosporins
A. interfere with DNA synthesis.
B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D. damage cell membranes.
E. block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Sulfonamides
A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D. damage cell membranes.
E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Aminoglycosides
A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D. damage cell membranes.
E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have
A. a beta-lactam ring.
B. resistance to the action of penicillinase.
C. a semisynthetic nature.
D. an expanded spectrum of activity.
E. All of the choices are correct.
A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
A. synercid.
B. penicillinase.
C. aztreonam.
D. clavulanic acid.
E. imipenem.
All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except
A. they have a beta-lactam ring.
B. greater resistance to beta-lactamases.
C. newer generations have activity against gram negatives.
D. many administered by injection not orally.
E. they are synthetic drugs.
Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A. gentamicin
B. vancomycin
C. cephalosporins
D. penicillins
E. clavamox
Gram negative rods are often treated with
A. penicillin G.
B. vancomycin.
C. aminoglycosides.
D. synercid.
E. isoniazid.
This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis
A. penicillin G.
B. vancomycin.
C. aminoglycosides.
D. synercid.
E. isoniazid.
Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?
A. aminoglycosides
B. tetracyclines
C. erythromycin
D. trimethroprim
E. chloramphenicol
Which of these drugs have the most narrow spectrum?
A. tetracycline
B. isoniazid
C. erythromycin
D. aminoglycosides
E. cephalosporins
All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except
A. broad spectrum.
B. include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
C. are nephrotoxic.
D. used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections.
E. readily absorbed from intestines.
Antimicrobics that are macrolides
A. disrupt cell membrane function.
B. include tetracyclines.
C. include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin.
D. are very narrow-spectrum drugs.
E. are hepatotoxic.
The drug that can cause aplastic anemic, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is
A. chloramphenicol.
B. clindamycin.
C. ciprofloxacin.
D. bacitracin.
E. gentamicin.
The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is
A. chloramphenicol.
B. clindamycin.
C. ciprofloxacin.
D. bacitracin.
E. gentamicin.
The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is
A. nystatin.
B. griseofulvin.
C. amphotericin B.
D. sulfa drugs.
E. metronidazole.
The drug used for several protozoan infections is
A. nystatin.
B. griseofulvin.
C. amphotericin B.
D. sulfa drugs.
E. metronidazole.
Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections.
A. bacterial
B. fungal
C. protozoan
D. helminthic
E. virus
Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections.
A. bacterial
B. fungal
C. protozoan
D. helminthic
E. virus
There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths
A. do not cause many human infections.
B. are not affected by antimicrobics.
C. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult.
D. are parasites found inside human cells.
E. because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria.
Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?
A. block penetration
B. block transcription and translation
C. inhibit DNA synthesis
D. block maturation
E. bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane
An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that
A. blocks penetration.
B. blocks transcription and translation.
C. inhibits peptidoglycan cross linking.
D. blocks maturation.
E. bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.
Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
A. influenza A virus.
B. HIV.
C. herpes zoster virus.
D. respiratory syncytial virus.
E. hepatitis C virus.
Acyclovir is used to treat
A. influenza A virus.
B. HIV.
C. herpes zoster virus.
D. respiratory syncytial virus.
E. hepatitis C virus.
The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include
A. bacterial chromosomal mutations.
B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
C. prevention of drug entry into the cell.
D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.
E. All of the choices are correct.
The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause
A. bacterial chromosomal mutations.
B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
C. prevention of drug entry into the cell.
D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except
A. development of resistance to the drug.
B. hepatotoxicity.
C. nephrotoxicity.
D. diarrhea.
E. deafness.
A superinfection results from
A. build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient.
B. the wrong drug administered to the patient.
C. an immune system reaction to the drug.
D. decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Drug susceptibility testing
A. determines the patients response to various antimicrobics.
B. determines the pathogens response to various antimicrobics.
C. determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics.
D. determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient.
E. None of the choices are correct.
A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patients isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?
A. Kirby-Bauer
B. antibiogram
C. E-test
D. MIC
E. therapeutic index (TI)
A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the
A. Kirby-Bauer.
B. antibiogram.
C. E-test.
D. MIC.
E. therapeutic index (TI).
Antimicrobics effective against only gram positive bacteria would be termed
A. antibiotics.
B. narrow-spectrum drugs.
C. semisynthetic drugs.
D. synthetic drugs.
E. broad-spectrum drugs.
A shotgun approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
A. giving a narrow spectrum drug.
B. culturing the pathogen and identifying it.
C. performing the disk diffusion assay.
D. using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.
E. using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination.
Which of the following will influence a physicians decision to prescribe an antimicrobial?
A. patient age
B. pregnancy
C. liver function
D. alcohol use
E. All of the choices are correct.
All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except
A. the inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment.
B. a mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant.
C. not completing the full course of treatment.
D. a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.
E. diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age.
All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except
A. the drug acts as an antigen.
B. the greatest number of antimicrobic allergies are to the penicillins.
C. hives may be the result after the drug is taken.
D. anaphylaxis can occur.
E. allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug.
Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs?
A. liver
B. kidneys
C. gall bladder
D. spleen
E. stomach
Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration?
A. penicillin G
B. tetraclycline
C. gentamicin
D. vancomycin
E. erythromycin
Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds?
A. because it makes the animals grow too large
B. because it causes infections in the cows and poultry fed them
C. because it raises the price of the meat too high
D. because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for AZT?
A. it is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis
B. it directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA
C. it inhibits the assembly of HIV particles
D. it inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope.
E. it prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome
All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except
A. they should be given early in an infection.
B. they prevent assembly and release of the virus.
C. they are used to treat infections by influenza A and B.
D. they inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virus.
E. they are effective prophylactics for influenza.
When a patients immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection.
True False
A semisynthetic antibiotic is a drug which is chemically modified in the laboratory after being isolated from natural sources.
True False
Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxins.
True False
Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.
True False
Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation.
True False
The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic required to inhibit the growth of the microbe.
True False
Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patients kidneys.
True False
The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.
True False
An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index.
True False
_____ are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.
________________________________________
Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.
________________________________________
Drugs that insert on the _____ ribosomal subunit prevent peptide bond formation or inhibit translocation of the subunit during translation.
________________________________________
Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called _____.
________________________________________
All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring, a beta-lactam ring, and an R group.
________________________________________
The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold _____.
________________________________________
The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.
________________________________________
Polyene drugs bind to fungal _____ and cause loss of selective permeability.
________________________________________
Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of _____.
________________________________________
If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.
________________________________________
Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antbacterial drugs. Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs.
Describe how the therapeutic index of a drug is determined and explain its function.
Discuss 5 factors that have influenced the increasing development of resistant microbial strains.
12 Key
Which is mismatched?
A.Fleming penicillin
B. Domagk sulfonamide C. Ehrlich tetracycline
D. Florey and Chain penicillin
E. None of the choices are correct.
Talaro 012 Chapter #1
Salvarsan was
A.discovered in the mid-1900s. B. used to treat syphilis.
C. formulated from the red dye prontosil.
D. first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum.
E. discovered by Robert Koch.
Talaro 012 Chapter #2
Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called A.antibiotics.
B. narrow-spectrum drugs.
C. semisynthetic drugs.
D. synthetic drugs.
E. broad-spectrum drugs
Talaro 012 Chapter #3
Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
A.antibiotics.
B. narrow-spectrum drugs.
C. semisynthetic drugs.
D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs.
Talaro 012 Chapter #4
Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
A. Penicillium.
B. Bacillus. C.Staphylococcus.
D. Streptomyces.
E. Cephalosporium.
Talaro 012 Chapter #5
Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
A.low toxicity for human tissues.
B. high toxicity against microbial cells.
C. do not cause serious side effects in humans.
D. stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids. E. All of the choices are correct.
Talaro 012 Chapter #6
Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the bodys normal flora often cause
A.nephrotoxicity. B. superinfections.
C. allergic reactions.
D. drug toxicity.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Talaro 012 Chapter #7
Penicillins and cephalosporins
A.interfere with DNA synthesis.
B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D. damage cell membranes. E. block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Talaro 012 Chapter #8
Sulfonamides
A.interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D. damage cell membranes.
E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Talaro 012 Chapter #9
Aminoglycosides
A.interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D. damage cell membranes.
E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Talaro 012 Chapter #10
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have A.a beta-lactam ring.
B. resistance to the action of penicillinase.
C. a semisynthetic nature.
D. an expanded spectrum of activity.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Talaro 012 Chapter #11
A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
A.synercid.
B. penicillinase.
C. aztreonam. D. clavulanic acid.
E. imipenem.
Talaro 012 Chapter #12
All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except
A. they have a beta-lactam ring.
B. greater resistance to beta-lactamases.
C. newer generations have activity against gram negatives.
D. many administered by injection not orally. E. they are synthetic drugs.
Talaro 012 Chapter #13
Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? A.gentamicin
B. vancomycin
C. cephalosporins
D. penicillins
E. clavamox
Talaro 012 Chapter #14
Gram negative rods are often treated with
A.penicillin G.
B. vancomycin. C. aminoglycosides.
D. synercid.
E. isoniazid.
Talaro 012 Chapter #15
This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis
A.penicillin G.
B. vancomycin.
C. aminoglycosides.
D. synercid. E. isoniazid.
Talaro 012 Chapter #16
Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?
A.aminoglycosides
B. tetracyclines
C. erythromycin D. trimethroprim
E. chloramphenicol
Talaro 012 Chapter #17
Which of these drugs have the most narrow spectrum?
A.tetracycline B. isoniazid
C. erythromycin
D. aminoglycosides
E. cephalosporins
Talaro 012 Chapter #18
All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except
A. broad spectrum.
B.