Foundations In Microbiology 9th Edition By Talaro Chess Test Bank

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Foundations In Microbiology 9th Edition By Talaro Chess Test Bank

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Foundations In Microbiology 9th Edition By Talaro Chess Test Bank

ch03
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The Six Is of studying microorganisms include all of the following except
A. inoculation.
B. incubation.
C. infection.
D. isolation.
E. identification.
2. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except
A. broth.
B. enriched.
C. agar.
D. petri dish.
E. gelatin.
3. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium
is
A. isolation.
B. inoculation.
C. immunization.
D. infection.
E. contamination.
4. Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?
A. broth medium
B. differential medium
C. selective medium
D. solid medium
E. assay medium
5. A pure culture contains only
A. one species of microorganism.
B. bacteria.
C. a variety of microbes from one source.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. None of the choices are correct.
6. Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled?
A. a pure culture
B. a mixed culture
C. a solid medium
D. a liquid medium
E. a contaminated medium
7. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both
Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture.
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
B. The culture is contaminated.
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect.
D. The culture medium must be selective.
E. The culture medium must be differential.
8. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium.
Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
B. The culture is contaminated.
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect.
D. The culture medium must be selective.
E. The culture medium must be differential.
9. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the
surface?
A. streak plate
B. spread plate
C. pour plate
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
10. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is
A. blood agar.
B. trypticase soy agar.
C. mannitol salt agar.
D. MacConkey medium.
E. a reducing medium.
11. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations
known and reproducible would be termed
A. complex.
B. reducing.
C. enriched.
D. enumeration.
E. synthetic.
12. A reducing medium contains
A. sugars that can be fermented.
B. extra oxygen.
C. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors.
D. substances that remove oxygen.
E. inhibiting agents.
13. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an
observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
A. differential
B. selective
C. enumeration
D. enriched
E. reducing
14. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbe
is she attempting to culture?
A. fastidious
B. gram positive
C. anaerobe
D. gram negative
E. virus
15. Mannitol salt agar is selective for which bacterial genus?
A. Salmonella
B. Streptococcus
C. Neisseria
D. Staphylococcus
E. Escherichia
16. A microbiologist must culture a patients feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would
likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen?
A. NaCl
B. sheep red blood cells
C. bile salts
D. thioglycolic acid
E. peptone
17. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscopes ability to show two separate entities as
separate and distinct?
A. resolving power
B. magnification
C. refraction
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
18. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen?
A. condenser
B. objective lens
C. ocular lens
D. body
E. nosepiece
19. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power
of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?
A. 100X
B. 950X
C. 85X
D. 850X
E. 95X
20. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of
resolution of 0.2 m except
A. 0.2 m.
B. 0.2 mm.
C. 0.1 m.
D. 0.3 m.
E. 2.0 m.
21. The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs
A. illumination.
B. resolution.
C. magnification.
D. size of the field.
E. All of the choices are correct.
22. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black
background is
A. bright-field.
B. dark-field.
C. phase-contrast.
D. fluorescence.
E. electron.
23. Which microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
24. Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
25. Which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained
cells based on their varying densities?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
26. Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
27. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it
A. uses electrons to produce a specimen image.
B. is a type of compound microscope.
C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein.
D. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections.
E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source.
28. Which is incorrect about chocolate agar?
A. It can be used to cultivate Neisseria.
B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated.
C. It has chocolate extract in it.
D. It is an enriched medium.
E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria.
29. Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over
it?
A. fluorescence
B. differential interference contrast
C. scanning electron
D. transmission electron
E. phase-contrast
30. The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is
A. hanging drop.
B. fixed stained smear.
C. Gram stain.
D. negative stain.
E. flagellar stain.
31. The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
A. kill them.
B. secure them to the slide.
C. enlarge the cells.
D. add contrast in order to see them better.
E. see motility.
32. The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain ____________.
A. are used on a wet mount of the specimen
B. use heat to force the dye into cell structures
C. have outcomes based on cell wall differences
D. use a negative stain technique
E. are differential stains
33. Basic dyes are
A. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells.
B. anionic.
C. used in negative staining.
D. repelled by cells.
E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin.
34. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loefflers methylene blue.
All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of
A. negative staining.
B. using an acidic dye.
C. simple staining.
D. using the acid-fast stain.
E. capsule staining.
35. Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts are
A. synthetic.
B. complex.
C. reducing.
D. enriched.
E. All of the choices are correct.
36. Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of
media?
A. synthetic
B. reducing
C. enriched
D. nonsynthetic
E. selective
37. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called
A. fastidious.
B. pathogenic.
C. harmless.
D. anaerobic.
E. aerobic.
38. A media is designed that allows only staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow
halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is:
A. selective only.
B. differential only.
C. both selective and differential.
D. a reducing media.
E. enriched.
39. All of the following are examples of basic dyes except
A. Methylene Blue.
B. Nigrosin.
C. Crystal Violet.
D. Safranin.
E. Carbol Fuchsin.
40. Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile?
A. SIM
B. MacConkey
C. Enriched media
D. Thayer-Martin media
E. Chocolate agar
41. All of the following are correct about agar except
A. it is flexible.
B. it melts at the boiling point of water (100C).
C. it is a source of nutrition for bacteria.
D. it solidifies below 42C.
E. it is solid at room temperature.
42. Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi?
A. Sabourauds agar
B. MacConkey agar
C. Tomato juice agar
D. Phenylethanol agar
E. Mueller tellurite
43. Which of the following puts the Six Is in their correct order?
A. inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, identification
B. isolation, inspection, inoculation, incubation, identification
C. incubation, inspection, isolation, identification, inoculation
D. inspection, identification, isolation, incubation, inoculation
E. inspection, isolation, incubation, inoculation, identification
44. Why is immersion oil often used when viewing specimens under the microscope?
A. to stain the cells blue
B. to prevent the smear from drying out
C. to slow bacterial movement so you can see cells better
D. to increase the resolution
E. to reduce the amount of heat reaching the slide from the light source
45. The procedure for culturing a microorganism requires the use of a microscope.
True False
46. One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells.
True False
47. Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
True False
48. Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.
True False
49. A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium.
True False
50. A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to
facilitate the growth of other microbes.
True False
51. A bacterial species that grows on blood agar but will not grow on trypticase soy agar is termed an
anaerobe.
True False
52. Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the
specimens.
True False
53. The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction.
True False
54. At the end of the Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells.
True False
55. Scanning tunneling and atomic force microscopes are used to image the detailed structure of biological
molecules.
True False
56. The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in
order to produce a culture is the _____.
________________________________________
57. The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and _____.
________________________________________
58. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed _____.
________________________________________
59. _____ is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony.
________________________________________
60. Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.
________________________________________
61. Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen
by the _____ lens. This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen
to form a virtual image received by the eye.
________________________________________
62. The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses.
________________________________________
63. _____ dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells.
________________________________________
64. _____ has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the
slide to the objective lens.
________________________________________
65. Compare and contrast the reagents and functions of negative staining versus positive staining.
66. Explain the difference and significance between a contaminated culture and a mixed culture.
67. A contaminated food sample contains several different species of bacteria. A food microbiologist
is interested in studying just one of these species. Describe the sequence of procedures that the
microbiologist must perform in order to obtain a pure culture of the bacterial species of interest from this
food sample. Detail all the necessary media and equipment.
68. Explain how and why immersion oil increases resolution but not magnification when using the 100X
objective.
69. Which of the following reagents reacts with crystal violet as the mordant?
A. Crystal violet
B. Grams iodine
C. 95% ethyl alcohol
D. Safranin
70. How will E. coli appear if the mordant is not applied?
A. Gram-positive
B. Gram-negative
C. Gram-variable
D. Colorless
E. None of these
71. Observing and characterizing colonial growth for size, shape, edge, elevation, color, odor, and texture is
part of ___.
A. Specimen collection
B. Inoculation
C. Incubation
D. Isolation
E. Inspection
72. In lab, Tom was given a mixed culture. His objective is to isolate single colonies. What should be used to
accomplish this goal?
A. Sterile swab, loop dilution, TSB
B. Hockey stick, spread plate technique, and 4 degree Celsius incubation temperature
C. Loop dilution, TSA, hockey stick, 37 degree Celsius incubator
D. Inoculating loop, incinerator, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator
E. Sterile swab, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator
73. Sally had a throat sample taken at a satellite lab within her health care providers office. What kind of
media would be best suited for this specimen?
A. TSA plate
B. TSB tube
C. Transport media
D. Pour plate
E. Quadrant streak plate
74. Identification relies entirely on biochemical test results.
True False
75. Using the numbers 1-4, label the correct chronological sequence of events for the Gram staining
procedure.
(1, 2, 3, 4) Apply iodine for 1 minute to the smear and rinse
(1, 2, 3, 4) Add crystal violet for 60 seconds and rinse
(1, 2, 3, 4) Add 95% ethanol for 10-20 seconds and rinse
(1, 2, 3, 4) Apply safranin for 60 seconds and rinse
ch03 Key
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. E
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. E
20. C
21. B
22. B
23. E
24. E
25. C
26. A
27. A
28. C
29. C
30. A
31. D
32. E
33. A
34. C
35. B
36. D
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. C
42. A
43. A
44. D
45. FALSE
46. FALSE
47. TRUE
48. FALSE
49. TRUE
50. TRUE
51. FALSE
52. TRUE
53. TRUE
54. TRUE
55. TRUE
56. inoculum
57. liquid
58. fastidious
59. subculture
60. incubated
61. objective, ocular
62. nosepiece
63. acidic
64. immersion oil
65.
66.
67.
68.
69. B
70. B
71. E
72. D
73. C
74. FALSE
75. Using the numbers 1-4, label the correct chronological sequence of events for the Gram staining procedure.
2 Apply iodine for 1 minute to the smear and rinse
1 Add crystal violet for 60 seconds and rinse
3 Add 95% ethanol for 10-20 seconds and rinse
4 Apply safranin for 60 seconds and rinse
ch03 Summary
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including brig
ht field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).
7
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same process
es as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
1
ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their
metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
4
ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteris
tics.
11
ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. 10
ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological met
hods and apply these methods to analogous situations.
6
ASM Objective: 07.02 Ability to use quantitative reasoning: Use mathematical reasoning and graphing skills to solve problems in
microbiology.
1
ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase
contrast).
15
ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. 20
ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). 14
ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, an
d spectrophotometric methods).
1
ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. 34
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 8
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways 14
ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking 7
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills 72
Learning Outcome: 03.02 Briefly outline the processes and purposes of the six types of procedures that are used in handling, maint
aining, and studying microorganisms.
5
Learning Outcome: 03.03 Describe the basic plan of an optical microscope, and differentiate between magnification and resolution. 3
Learning Outcome: 03.04 Explain how the images are formed, along with the role of light and the different powers of lenses. 5
Learning Outcome: 03.05 Indicate how the resolving power is determined and how resolution affects image visibility. 6
Learning Outcome: 03.06 Differentiate between the major types of optical microscopes, their illumination sources, image appearan
ce, and uses.
4
Learning Outcome: 03.07 Describe the operating features of electron microscopes and how they differ from optical microscopes in
illumination source, magnification, resolution, and image appearance.
3
Learning Outcome: 03.08 Differentiate between transmission and scanning electron microscopes in image formation and appearan
ce.
1
Learning Outcome: 03.09 Explain the basic differences between fresh and fixed preparations for microscopy and how they are use
d.
3
Learning Outcome: 03.10 Define dyes and describe the basic chemistry behind the process of staining. 3
Learning Outcome: 03.11 Differentiate between negative and positive staining, giving examples. 1
Learning Outcome: 03.12 Distinguish between simple, differential, and structural stains, including their applications. 3
Learning Outcome: 03.13 Describe the process of Gram staining and how its results can aid the identification process. 5
Learning Outcome: 03.14 Define inoculation, media, and culture, and describe sampling methods and instruments, and what events
must be controlled.
6
Learning Outcome: 03.15 Describe three basic techniques for isolation, including tools, media, incubation, and outcome. 4
Learning Outcome: 03.16 Explain what an isolated colony is and indicate how it forms. 1
Learning Outcome: 03.17 Differentiate between a pure culture, subculture, mixed culture, and contaminated culture. Define conta
minant.
5
Learning Outcome: 03.18 What kinds of data are collected during information gathering? 2
Learning Outcome: 03.19 Describe some of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples. 3
Learning Outcome: 03.20 Explain the importance of media for culturing microbes in the laboratory. 4
Learning Outcome: 03.21 Name the three general categories of media, based on their inherent properties and uses. 2
Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. 6
Learning Outcome: 03.23 Analyze chemically defined and complex media, describing their basic differences and content. 3
Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of f
unctional media.
13
Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content
and purposes.
10
Learning Outcome: 03.26 Explain what it means to say that microorganisms are not culturable. 1
Talaro Chapter 03 75
Topic: Culturing Microorganisms 41
Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 5
Topic: Microscopy 18
Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens 13

 

ch13
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Infection occurs when
A. contaminants are present on the skin.
B. a person swallows microbes in/on food.
C. a person inhales microbes in the air.
D. pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.
E. All of the choices are correct.
2. All infectious diseases
A. are contagious.
B. only occur in humans.
C. are caused by microorganisms or their products.
D. are caused by vectors.
E. involve viruses as the pathogen.
3. Which is not the terminology used for resident flora?
A. Pathogenic
flora
B. Normal flora
C. Indigenous flora
D. Normal microflora
E. All of the choices are correct
4. Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are
A. in food.
B. the patients own normal flora.
C. on fomites.
D. in the air.
E. transmitted from one person to another.
5. The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora
A. before birth, in utero.
B. during, and immediately after birth.
C. when a child first goes to school.
D. when an infant gets its first infectious disease.
E. during puberty.
6. Resident flora are found in/on the
A. skin.
B. mouth.
C. nasal passages.
D. large intestine.
E. All of the choices are correct.
7. All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites, except
A. Escherichia.
B. Staphylococcus.
C. Corynebacterium.
D. Micrococcus.
E. Mycobacterium.
8. Resident flora of the intestines include
A. Streptococcus.
B. Bacteroides.
C. Staphylococcus.
D. Haemophilus.
E. All of the choices are correct.
9. Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Streptococcus
C. Haemophilus
D. Escherichia
E. Mycobacterium
10. Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Streptococcus
C. Haemophilus
D. Escherichia
E. Mycobacterium
11. The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several
other vitamins is the
A. skin.
B. mouth.
C. large intestine.
D. vagina.
E. nasal passages.
12. Virulence factors include all the following, except
A. capsules.
B. ribosomes.
C. exoenzymes.
D. endotoxin.
E. exotoxin.
13. STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common
A. genera of resident flora.
B. sexually transmitted diseases.
C. portals of entry.
D. vectors.
E. infections of the fetus and neonate.
14. Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of
A. adhesive factors.
B. exotoxins.
C. hemolysins.
D. antiphagocytic factors.
E. exoenzymes.
15. Exotoxins are
A. proteins.
B. only released after a cell is damaged or lysed.
C. antiphagocytic factors.
D. secretions that always target nervous tissue.
E. lipopolysaccharides.
16. Enterotoxins are
A. virulence factors.
B. toxins that target the intestines.
C. proteins.
D. exotoxins.
E. All of the choices are correct.
17. Which is mismatched?
A. Fimbriae adherence to substrate
B. Capsules antiphagocytic factor
C. Coagulase dissolve fibrin clots
D. Leukocidins damage white blood cells
E. Hemolysins damage red blood cells
18. The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak
activity is
A. prodromal stage.
B. convalescent stage.
C. incubation period.
D. period of invasion.
E. All of the choices are correct.
19. The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is
the
A. prodromal stage.
B. convalescent stage.
C. incubation period.
D. period of invasion.
E. All of the choices are correct.
20. The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the
A. prodromal stage.
B. convalescent stage.
C. incubation period.
D. period of invasion.
E. All of the choices are correct.
21. Which is mismatched?
A. Secondary infection infection spreads to several tissue sites
B. Mixed infection several agents established at infection site
C. Acute infection rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms
D. Local infection pathogen remains at or near entry site
E. Toxemia pathogens toxins carried by the blood to target tissues
22. The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed
A. syndrome.
B. symptom.
C. sign.
D. pathology.
E. inflammation.
23. The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed
A. syndrome.
B. symptom.
C. sign.
D. pathology.
E. inflammation.
24. Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of
A. toxemia.
B. inflammation.
C. sequelae.
D. a syndrome.
E. latency.
25. The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is
A. pathology.
B. clinical microbiology.
C. medicine.
D. immunology.
E. epidemiology.
26. The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the
A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
B. World Health Organization.
C. National Institutes of Health.
D. United States Department of Agriculture.
E. Infection Control Committee.
27. The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the
healthy population is the
A. mortality rate.
B. morbidity rate.
C. incidence rate.
D. prevalence rate.
E. epidemic rate.
28. A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is
A. epidemic.
B. endemic.
C. pandemic.
D. sporadic.
E. chronic.
29. The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the
A. fomite.
B. carrier.
C. vector.
D. reservoir.
E. source.
30. Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a
A. fomite.
B. carrier.
C. vector.
D. reservoir.
E. source.
31. An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
A. fomite.
B. carrier.
C. vector.
D. reservoir.
E. source.
32. An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
A. fomite.
B. carrier.
C. vector.
D. reservoir.
E. source.
33. Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission?
A. Drinking contaminated water.
B. A sneeze transmitting a cold.
C. Oral-fecal transmission involving a diaper.
D. A mosquito bite.
E. A mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus.
34. Reservoirs include
A. humans
B. animals
C. soil
D. water
E. All of the choices are correct
35. A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen
was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the
transmission route is
A. direct.
B. fomite.
C. vehicle.
D. droplet nuclei.
E. aerosols.
36. The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are
A. fomites.
B. aerosols.
C. mechanical vectors.
D. droplet nuclei.
E. biological vectors.
37. Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are
A. fomites.
B. aerosols.
C. mechanical vectors.
D. droplet nuclei.
E. biological vectors.
38. Nosocomial infections involve all the following, except
A. they are only transmitted by medical personnel.
B. they often involve the patients urinary tract and surgical incisions.
C. the patients resident flora can be the infectious agent.
D. Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents.
E. medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.
39. When would Kochs Postulates be utilized?
A. To determine the cause of a patients illness in a hospital microbiology lab.
B. To develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab.
C. To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab.
D. To formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab.
E. Whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem.
40. All of the following are correct about mechanical vectors, except
A. cockroaches are an example.
B. the vector can carry the pathogen on its feet and mouthparts.
C. the vector is important to the life cycle of the infectious agent.
D. they can spread viral, bacterial, protozoan, and worm infections.
E. some, like flies feed on garbage and feces.
41. Which of the following is correct about skatole?
A. It is the general term for the flora of the gastrointestinal tract.
B. It is a mixture of amines and gases that gives feces its characteristic stench.
C. It is another term for the sexually transmitted disease, syphilis.
D. It is a general term for the endogenous flora in humans.
E. It is a chemical released by gram positive bacilli during inflammation.
42. Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens?
A. urogenital
B. gastrointestinal
C. respiratory
D. skin
E. They are all equally used as portals.
43. If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more
virulent?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. They are equally virulent
D. It is impossible to determine
44. All of the following are signs of infectious diseases, except
A. fever.
B. leucopenia.
C. swollen lymph nodes.
D. antibodies in serum.
E. nausea.
45. When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as
A. sporadic.
B. pandemic.
C. endemic.
D. epidemic.
E. chronic.
46. Joe contracted Hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the
disease is ___________ and the reservoir is ______________.
A. Joe, the doughnut
B. the doughnut, humans
C. humans, flour
D. flour, Joe
E. humans, Joe
47. A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease?
A. accountant
B. teacher
C. nurse
D. dental hygienist
E. forest ranger
48. Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, intravenous
catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which nosocomial infection is she at greatest risk for
contracting?
A. respiratory
B. septicemia
C. urinary tract
D. surgical site
E. meningitis
49. Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted
A. from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta.
B. from parent to offspring via respiratory route.
C. by contact between siblings.
D. between people living or working in the same building.
E. between higher and lower animals.
50. A veterinary hospital had an outbreak of Salmonella infantis. Within the facility, how can Salmonella can
be spread?
A. Unwashed hands
B. Feces
C. Contaminated objects
D. Multiple animals using the same stalls without proper cleaning
E. All of the choices are correct
51. A student has their teeth cleaned. The hygienist nicks their gum tissue. The student develops endocarditis
due to Streptococcus. What kind of pattern of infection is this?
A. Localized
B. Mixed Infection
C. Focal
D. Systemic
E. All of the choices are correct
52. Most of the skins resident flora is found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis.
True False
53. Under certain circumstances, a persons resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens.
True False
54. The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patients body defenses are at
the time of infection.
True False
55. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause
human disease to biosafety level 4.
True False
56. A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mothers blood is capable of crossing the placenta to
the fetal circulation and tissues.
True False
57. When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to
others.
True False
58. Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood.
True False
59. Sentinel animals are monitored for specific diseases in order to determine the potential for human
exposure to a disease.
True False
60. Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.
True False
61. Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
________________________________________
62. A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.
________________________________________
63. _____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious
disease.
________________________________________
64. _____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
________________________________________
65. _____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram negative cell walls.
________________________________________
66. _____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.
________________________________________
67. The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the _____ rate.
________________________________________
68. _____ are a set of criteria used to identify and link a specific microorganism as the etiologic agent of a
new infectious disease.
________________________________________
69. Discuss 5 specific contributing factors in the occurrence of nosocomial infections, and then discuss 3
actions that can help decrease their rate at health-care facilities.
70. Compare and contrast exotoxins and endotoxins with regard to their: a) chemical nature, b) source, c)
effects on human body cells and resulting symptoms, and d) examples.
________________________________________
71. Select 5 specific virulence factors and explain how each factor increases a pathogens virulence.
72. Describe the criteria that make up Kochs Postulates and discuss their importance in modern
epidemiology.
73. Write about some ways to prevent any contamination in lab while making sub-cultures.
ch13 Key
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. E
7. A
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. E
14. E
15. A
16. E
17. C
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. E
26. A
27. C
28. B
29. D
30. B
31. C
32. A
33. E
34. E
35. A
36. D
37. E
38. A
39. C
40. C
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. E
45. A
46. B
47. E
48. C
49. A
50. E
51. C
52. FALSE
53. TRUE
54. FALSE
55. TRUE
56. TRUE
57. FALSE
58. TRUE
59. TRUE
60. TRUE
61. decrease
62. zoonosis
63. Convalescent
64. Bacteremia
65. Endotoxins
66. Kinases
67. mortality
68. Kochs Postulates
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
ch13 Summary
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critic
al capabilities.
1
ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteris
tics.
1
ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. 12
ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral
or detrimental ways.
72
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 1
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways 2
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems 69
Learning Outcome: 13.01 Describe some of the major interactions between humans and the microbes that share our habitats. 1
Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. 10
Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve. 11
Learning Outcome: 13.04 Briefly relate the sources and conditions that influence the development of microbiota in the major body
systems.
5
Learning Outcome: 13.05 Identify which bodily sites remain free of living organisms, and explain why this is necessary. 2
Learning Outcome: 13.06 Explain the germ-free condition and how it is important to microbiologists. 2
Learning Outcome: 13.07 Review the main stages in the development of an infection. 5
Learning Outcome: 13.09 Differentiate among the different portals of entry, and give examples of pathogens that invade by these
means.
5
Learning Outcome: 13.10 Explain what is meant by the infectious dose, using examples. 1
Learning Outcome: 13.11 Describe the process of adhesion and various mechanisms by which microbes use it to gain entry. 2
Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. 10
Learning Outcome: 13.13 Compare and contrast the major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxins. 5
Learning Outcome: 13.14 Describe the clinical stages of infection. 5
Learning Outcome: 13.15 Use key terms to describe different patterns of infection. 4
Learning Outcome: 13.16 Use correct terminology to explain the manifestations of infections and inflammation. 4
Learning Outcome: 13.17 Discuss the major portals of exit and how they influence the end stages of infection and disease. 2
Learning Outcome: 13.18 Define epidemiology, and summarize the major goals of its studies. 1
Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. 12
Learning Outcome: 13.20 Explain the concept of carriers and describe several types. 4
Learning Outcome: 13.21 Use examples to distinguish between the types of vectors, and discuss the importance of zoonoses. 6
Learning Outcome: 13.22 Differentiate between communicable and noncommunicable infectious diseases. 1
Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. 15
Learning Outcome: 13.24 Explain the primary methods of tracking infections and diseases in a population. 1
Learning Outcome: 13.25 Differentiate among the patterns of disease outbreaks according to frequency, number, and location. 7
Learning Outcome: 13.26 Summarize the steps in Kochs postulates, and explain their importance to microbiologists. 3
Learning Outcome: 13.27 Discuss nosocomial infections and the ways they impact the clinical environment. 3
Talaro Chapter 13 73
Topic: Development of an Infection 8
Topic: Epidemiology 8
Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology 22
Topic: Resident Microbiota 12
Topic: Transmission of Infections 29
Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 13

 

ch27
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Water moves through sand beds and activated charcoal in this step of water purification:
A. chlorination
B. aeration and settling
C. sedimentation
D. storage
E. filtration
2. The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
B. Leuconostoc mesenteroides.
C. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus.
D. Propionibacterium.
E. Spirulina.
3. These bacteria ferment milk lactose, producing acids that curdle the milk:
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B. Leuconostoc mesenteroides
C. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
D. Propionibacterium
E. Spirulina
4. This organism is used to initiate the fermentation of cabbage to make sauerkraut:
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B. Leuconostoc mesenteroides
C. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
D. Propionibacterium
E. Spirulina
5. This organism is used to make Swiss cheese:
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B. Leuconostoc mesenteroides
C. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
D. Propionibacterium
E. Spirulina
6. What is made by adding Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus to milk?
A. Butter
B. Cheese
C. Sour cream
D. Tofu
E. Yogurt
7. Which step in making beer involves sprouting and softening the barley to release amylases to act on
starch, and proteases to digest protein?
A. Preparing a mash
B. Malting
C. Aging
D. Wort is boiled with hops
E. Fermentation
8. All of the following are foodborne pathogens except
A. Salmonella.
B. Campylobacter.
C. Streptococcus.
D. Clostridium.
E. Staphylococcus aureus.
9. Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes
A. high temperature.
B. pasteurization.
C. refrigeration and freezing.
D. irradiation.
E. All of the choices are correct.
10. Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food?
A. Iodine
B. Organic acids
C. Sulfite
D. Ethylene oxide
E. Salt
11. Bacillus thuringiensis produce
A. causes food poisoning.
B. a biopesticide.
C. is used in cheese-making.
D. is a microorganism used as food.
E. All of the choices are correct.
12. Which of the following is an example of a food intoxication?
A. Salmonellosis
B. Listerosis
C. Campylobacteriosis
D. Staphyloccocal enteritis
E. Vibrio enteritis
13. Which is incorrect about food-borne illnesses?
A. Most cases of food poisoning occur in the home and are not reported.
B. Reports of food poisoning are decreasing in the United States.
C. Avoiding cross contamination in the kitchen can reduce the risk of food poisoning.
D. The top viruses that cause food-borne illnesses are Norwalk and Hepatitis A viruses.
E. Food infection is associated with ingesting whole microbial cells.
14. All of the following foods are preserved using high osmotic pressure except
A. jellies.
B. pickles.
C. canned fruit.
D. candies.
E. bread.
15. During which phase of growth would a primary metabolite be produced?
A. Lag phase
B. Exponential phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
E. All of the choices are correct.
16. Fermentors have a built-in device called a sparger. What does a sparger do?
A. It adds a continuous supply of glucose to the media.
B. It monitors the pH of the medium.
C. It monitors the temperature of the medium.
D. It aerates the medium to promote aerobic growth.
E. It stirs the mixture of microbe and nutrients.
17. Which of the following enzymes are produced by microorganisms on an industrial scale?
A. Pectinase
B. Cellulase
C. Amylase
D. Keratinase
E. All of the choices are correct.
18. Which of the following methods of food preservation are mismatched?
A. Sulfites wines
B. Nitrites bacon
C. Propionic acid baked goods
D. Propylene oxide gas dairy
E. Ethylene gas spices
19. In 2006, the Food and Drug Administration approved the spraying of bacteriophages onto ready-to-eat
meat products to
A. prevent salmonellosis.
B. increase the nutritional content of the food.
C. prevent mold.
D. sterilize the food.
E. prevent listeriosis.
20. To prevent the overgrowth of cyanobacteria and algae in water reservoirs, the water is often treated with
A. iodine
B. copper sulfate
C. propionic acid
D. lactic acid
E. antibiotics
21. Downstream processing includes all the following except
A. recovery
B. purification
C. packaging
D. growth of the microorganism
E. It includes all of the above.
22. Organisms from the genus Aspergillus are used in the production of
A. pectinase
B. proteases
C. cellulase
D. amylase
E. All of the above.
23. The process of activating sludge from waste water involves
A. chlorination.
B. filtration.
C. aeration and stirring.
D. radiation.
E. heat and pressure.
24. What process does wine go through in order to prevent it from turning to vinegar?
A. Irradiation
B. Pasteurization
C. Autoclaving
D. Filtration
E. Distillation
25. Nitrates and nitrites are used in cured meats mainly to prevent
A. Staphylococcal enteritis.
B. Shigellosis.
C. Botulism.
D. Listeriosis.
E. Vibrio enteritis.
26. There are a few places in the United States that use ozone or peroxide for final disinfection of water.
True False
27. Rennin is added to cheese to give it flavor.
True False
28. In batch fermentation, substrate is added continuously and the product is siphoned off throughout the run.
True False
29. Hops is the herb that gives beer some of its aroma and flavor.
True False
30. Wine has a maximum alcoholic content of 17% because concentrations above this level inhibit the
metabolism of the yeast.
True False
31. Freshly fermented beer is lagered, meaning it is treated with potassium metabisulfate.
True False
32. Vinegar can be produced when alcohol in wine is oxidized to acetic acid.
True False
33. A food infection results from the ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells.
True False
34. Implementation of the HAACP procedures has increased the concentration of alcohol in distilled
liquors.
True False
35. If vodka is 80 proof, it contains 40% ethyl alcohol.
True False
36. The microbes used by fermentation industries are mutant strains that synthesize large quantities of the
desired product.
True False
37. A food _____ results from ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells growing in the food.
________________________________________
38. A food _____ results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine.
________________________________________
39. A _____ is a device used for growing mass cultures.
________________________________________
40. Drying, or _________ is not a reliable microbicidal method.
________________________________________
41. Hypertonic levels of sugar or salt create high __________ pressure that plasmolyzes bacteria.
________________________________________
42. Regular refrigeration does not inhibit the growth of __________ microbes that can continue to grow and
cause food spoilage.
________________________________________
43. ____________ protein can be produced from waste materials such as molasses or petroleum by-products
to be used as a food.
________________________________________
44. In some parts of Mexico, ___________ has become a viable alternative to green plants as a primary
nutrient source.
________________________________________
45. The fermentation of milk by Streptococcus thermophilus produces ___________.
________________________________________
46. __________ metabolites are by-products of metabolism and essential to the microbes function.
________________________________________
47. The process of recovery, purification, and packaging of product is known as _________ processing.
________________________________________
48. A strain of ____________ is being considered to control the mosquito vector of malaria.
________________________________________
49. Compare and contrast the starting materials, processing steps, and microbes used in brewing beer and
making wine.
50. Describe the major steps in water purification as carried out by a modern municipal treatment plant.
51. Why are cases of food borne illnesses escalating in the United States despite our knowledge of how to
prevent outbreaks?
52. Compare and contrast ultra-high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization and regular pasteurization.
53. List some examples of products made through industrial microbiology.
54. Draw and label a generic microbial growth curve, including the points at which metabolites are formed.
ch27 Key
1. E
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. E
7. B
8. C
9. E
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. E
15. B
16. D
17. E
18. D
19. E
20. B
21. D
22. E
23. C
24. B
25. C
26. TRUE
27. FALSE
28. FALSE
29. TRUE
30. TRUE
31. FALSE
32. TRUE
33. FALSE
34. FALSE
35. TRUE
36. TRUE
37. intoxication
38. infection
39. fermentor
40. dessication
41. osmotic
42. psychrotrophic OR psychrophilic
43. Single-cell
44. spirulina
45. yogurt
46. Primary
47. downstream
48. Bacillus thuringiensis
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
ch27 Summary
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a
huge diversity of microorganisms.
1
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same process
es as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
2
ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their
metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
2
ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteris
tics.
2
ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. 19
ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. 1
ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. 9
ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral
or detrimental ways.
11
ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cyc
les and plant and/or animal microflora).
1
ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. 28
ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution 1
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 2
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways 20
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems 22
ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms 29
Learning Outcome: 27.01 Describe the primary interests of applied and industrial microbiology. 3
Learning Outcome: 27.02 Outline the steps in treatment of municipal water supplies. 4
Learning Outcome: 27.03 Summarize the stages in sewage and wastewater treatment. 4
Learning Outcome: 27.05 Characterize the basic science behind the use of microbes in food fermentations. 12
Learning Outcome: 27.06 Describe the microbiological processes involved in bread making, alcoholic beverage production, and fe
rmented plant products.
9
Learning Outcome: 27.07 Outline the fermentation processes related to the preparation of dairy products. 4
Learning Outcome: 27.08 Explain several ways that microbes may be used as foods. 2
Learning Outcome: 27.09 Explain the importance of microbes as agents of food-borne illnesses. 9
Learning Outcome: 27.10 Classify the types of food poisoning, providing examples of each. 8
Learning Outcome: 27.11 Identify the major methods of food preservation. 11
Learning Outcome: 27.12 Describe methods for preventing food-borne diseases. 14
Learning Outcome: 27.13 Recall the major concepts in industrial microbiology. 6
Learning Outcome: 27.14 Describe industrial fermentations and the role of the fermentor. 4
Learning Outcome: 27.15 Outline the steps in industrial mass production of organic substances. 8
Learning Outcome: 27.16 Describe several types of products made with fermentation technology and how they are used. 5
Talaro Chapter 27 54
Topic: Applied Microbiology 7
Topic: Food Microbiology 35
Topic: Industrial Microbiology 12

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