Human Anatomy & Physiology 8th Edition, Marieb Test Bank

<< Fundamentals of Nursing Human Health & Function 7th Edition, Craven Test Bank Foundations of Mental Health Care 5th Edition, Morrison Test Bank >>
Product Code: 222
Availability: In Stock
Price: $24.99
Qty:     - OR -   Add to Wish List
Add to Compare

Human Anatomy & Physiology 8th Edition, Marieb Test Bank


Test Bank Human Anatomy Physiology 8th Edition, Marieb

Chapter 1:
1) What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?
A) transverse B) sagittal C) median D) frontal
2) One of the functional characteristics of life is irritability. This refers to
A) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger
B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
C) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce
D) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system
3) Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane?
A) two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves
B) a transverse cut just above the knees
C) any sagittal plane except the median
D) any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior
4) Which one of the following systems responds to environmental stimuli?
A) nervous B) lymphatic C) immune D) muscular
5) The cavities housing the eyes are called _ cavities.
A) cranial B) nasal C) orbital D) frontal
6) If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would be the _.
A) control center B) effector C) receptor D) variable
7) The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?
A) intestines B) liver C) lungs D) brain
8) Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched.
A) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.
B) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye.
C) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth.
D) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye.
9) The term pollex refers to the _.
A) calf B) thumb C) fingers D) great toe
10) The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would say it is anatomy.
A) developmental B) microscopic C) systemic D) gross
Chapter 2:
1) The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are
A) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen B) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen
C) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium D) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium
2) Which of the following is an example of a suspension?
A) rubbing alcohol B) cytoplasm C) blood D) salt water
3) Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
A) NaCl B) CH4 C) NaOH D) H2O
4) Which of the following is not a role of molecular chaperonins?
A) help to translocate proteins and certain metal ions across cell membranes
B) aid the desired folding and association process of polypeptides
C) promote the breakdown of damaged or denatured proteins
D) prevent accidental, premature, or incorrect folding of polypeptide chains
E) act as a biological catalyst
5) Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape? A) Oxygen B) Amino acid C) Hydrogen D) Carbon
6) What happens in redox reactions?
A) the reaction is always easily reversible
B) the electron acceptor is oxidized
C) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
D) the electron donor is reduced
7) The genetic information is coded in DNA by the
A) arrangement of the histones
B) sequence of the nucleotides
C) three-dimensional structure of the double helix
D) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules
8) An atom with a valence of 3 may have a total of electrons.
A) 13 B) 3 C) 8 D) 17
9) Choose the answer that best describes fibrous proteins.
A) are usually called enzymes B) rarely exhibit secondary structure
C) are cellular catalysts D) are very stable and insoluble in water
10) Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of .
A) cholesterol B) glycogen C) glucose D) triglycerides
Chapter 3:
1) Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?
A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
B) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
C) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
2) Peroxisomes _.
A) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action
B) sometimes function as secretory vesicles
C) are also called microbodies, and contain acid hydrolases
D) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis
3) Which of the following is true regarding the generation of a membrane potential?
A) The maintenance of the potential is based exclusively on diffusion processes.
B) When the sodium-potassium pump is activated, potassium is pumped into the cell twice as fast as the sodium is pumped out, thus causing the membrane potential.
C) In the polarized state, sodium and potassium ion concentrations are in static equilibrium.
D) Both potassium and sodium ions can leak through the cell membrane due to diffusion.
4) In the maintenance of the cell resting membrane potential .
A) extracellular sodium levels are high
B) the steady state involves only passive processes in all cells
C) the inside of the cell is positive relative to its outside
D) cells are more permeable to Na+ than K+
5) The main component of the cytosol is_.
A) sugars B) water C) salts D) proteins
6) A red blood cell placed in pure water would .
A) shrink
B) swell and burst
C) neither shrink nor swell
D) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
7) Which of the following does not serve as a signal for cell division?
A) surface-to-volume ratio B) joining of cyclins and Cdks
C) contact inhibition D) repressor genes
8) Some hormones enter cells via _ _.
A) receptor-mediated endocytosis
C) pinocytosis
B) exocytosis
D) endocytosis
9) Mitochondria .
A) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell
B) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
C) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP
D) are always the same shape
10) Passive membrane transport processes include _
A) consumption of ATP
B) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration
C) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
D) movement of water from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
Chapter 4:
1) Chondroblasts _.
A) located deep to the perichondrium divide and secrete new matrix on the internal portions of
the cartilage
B) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix
C) never lose their ability to divide
D) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae
2) Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair.
A) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot.
B) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers.
C) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection.
D) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.
3) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium _.
A) is not an epithelial classification B) possesses no goblet cells
C) lines the respiratory tract D) aids in digestion
4) Which of these is not considered connective tissue?
A) cartilage B) muscle C) blood D) adipose
5) The first step in tissue repair involves .
A) inflammation
B) formation of scar tissue
C) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells
D) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue
6) Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.
A) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another.
B) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.
C) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.
D) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
7) Epithelial tissue _ .
A) is usually acellular B) has a basement membrane
C) is highly vascularized D) contains a number of neuron types
8) Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?
A) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves.
B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion.
C) These glands are ductless.
D) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
9) What feature characterizes simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract?
A) fibroblasts B) dense microvilli
C) a rich vascular supply D) cilia
10) A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as .
A) transitional B) simple cuboidal
C) simple squamous D) stratified squamous
Chapter 5:
1) Which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and tends to grow rapidly and metastasize?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Melanoma
C) Adenoma D) Basal cell carcinoma
2) Keratinocytes are an important epidermal cell because they
A) produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties
B) are able to reproduce sporadically as needed
C) are able to transform from living cells to plasma membranes and still function
D) are a powerful defense against damaging UV rays
3) The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?
A) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells
B) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
C) goblet cells, parietal cells, and Kupffer cells
D) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes
4) The dermis .
A) lacks sensory corpuscles and glands B) is an avascular connective tissue layer
C) is where melanocytes are found D) has two layers
5) Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goose bumps?
A) arrector folliculi B) levator folliculi
C) arrector integument D) arrector pili
6) Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the
following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addisons disease?
A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
B) It is impossible to suggest Addisons disease from an inspection of a persons skin.
C) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.
D) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.
7) Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the bodys natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?
A) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skins color.
B) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to
activate the immune system.
C) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.
D) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.
8) Acne is a disorder associated with .
A) sebaceous glands B) sweat glands
C) Meibomian glands D) ceruminous glands
9) The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?
A) the subcutaneous layer B) the hypodermal layer
C) the papillary layer D) the reticular layer
10) Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?
A) mammary and ceruminous B) holocrine and mammary
C) eccrine and apocrine D) sebaceous and merocrine
Chapter 6:
1) Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of _ .
A) cartilage and compact bone B) chondrocytes and osteocytes
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts D) marrow and osteons
2) Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of
A) potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D B) vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride
C) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D D) sodium, calcium, and vitamin E
3) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?
A) hyaline cartilage B) fibrocartilage
C) dense fibrous connective tissue D) elastic connective tissue
4) Cranial bones develop .
A) within osseous membranes B) within fibrous membranes
C) from cartilage models D) from a tendon
5) Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth?
A) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form
B) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.
C) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage.
D) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones.
6) Factors in preventing (or delaying) osteoporosis include .
A) decreasing weight-bearing exercise B) decreasing exposure to the sun
C) increasing dietary vitamin C D) drinking fluoridated water
7) What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?
A) inadequate calcification of bone
B) decreased osteoclast activity
C) increased osteoclast activity
D) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
8) Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood, as well as shaping the articular surfaces?
A) Haversian system B) lacunae
C) epiphyseal line D) epiphyseal plate
9) The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?
A) spongy bone B) trabecular bone C) irregular bone D) compact bone
10) For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?
A) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate.
B) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.
C) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model.
D) A medullary cavity forms.
Chapter 7:
1) The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called .
A) foramina B) sutures C) areolas D) fontanelles
2) The ethmoid bone is composed of all of the following except the .
A) superior nasal concha B) cribriform plate
C) inferior nasal concha D) crista galli
3) Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal?
A) calcaneus B) medial cuneiform
C) lateral cuneiform D) cuboid
4) Which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses?
A) Paranasal sinuses open into the oral cavity.
B) Paranasal sinuses contain passages acting as one-way valves.
C) Paranasal sinuses enhance the resonance of the voice and lighten the skull.
D) Paranasal sinuses are found in maxillary, ethmoid, and lacrimal bones.
5) Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy?
A) kyphosis B) lordosis C) scoliosis D) hunchback
6) Which vertebra does not have a body?
A) axis B) last cervical C) atlas D) last lumbar
7) Which of the following statements is true regarding the location of the center of gravity of the
A) It is 2 cm anterior to the sacral foramina.
B) It is 1 cm superior to the median sacral crest.
C) It is 1 cm lateral to the sacroiliac joints of the pelvis.
D) It is 1 cm posterior to the sacral promontory.
8) The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the
A) sagittal B) squamosal C) lambdoid D) coronal
9) What is the major function of the axial skeleton?
A) provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement
B) give the body resilience
C) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
D) provide a space for the major digestive organs
10) Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?
A) kyphosis B) swayback C) lordosis D) scoliosis
Chapter 8:
1) In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
A) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.
B) All synovial joints are freely movable.
C) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.
D) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.
2) Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are
characteristics of what type of joint?
A) synchondrosis B) suture C) symphysis D) hinge joint
3) Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?
A) They allow movement in several planes.
B) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.
C) They allow movement only in one plane.
D) They occur only between bones with flat articular processes.
4) Which of the following conditions is generally considered a noninflammatory type of arthritis? A) rheumatoid arthritis B) tendonitis
C) osteoarthritis D) bursitis
5) What are menisci?
A) tendon sheaths B) small sacs containing synovial fluid
C) semilunar cartilage pads D) cavities lined with cartilage
6) What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called?
A) abduction B) inversion C) adduction D) dorsiflexion
7) On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?
A) pivot B) synchondrosis C) syndesmosis D) symphysis
8) Fibrous joints are classified as .
A) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses B) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular
C) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket D) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal
9) Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?
A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility
B) joints that permit angular movements
C) interphalangeal joints
D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones
10) Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements?
A) An example of a gliding movement is nodding ones head.
B) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
C) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs.
D) Gliding movements are multiaxial.
Chapter 9:
1) The muscle cell membrane is called the .
A) endomysium B) perimysium C) sarcolemma D) epimysium
2) After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to
stimulate contraction?
A) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved
B) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae
C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
D) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules
3) Muscle tone is _ .
A) a state of sustained partial contraction
B) the condition of athletes after intensive training
C) the feeling of well-being following exercise
D) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements
4) Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?
A) skeletal B) no muscle can regenerate
C) cardiac D) smooth
5) What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?
A) any part of the sarcolemma B) end of the muscle fiber
C) part adjacent to another muscle cell D) motor end plate
6) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release
of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
B) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
C) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
D) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke
7) When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?
A) relaxation period B) fatigue period
C) latent period D) refractory period
8) The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that _.
A) the site of calcium regulation differs
B) ATP energizes the sliding process
C) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism
D) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium
9) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
B) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei.
C) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules.
D) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.
10) What is the functional role of the T tubules?
A) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction
B) stabilize the G and F actin
C) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
D) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle
Chapter 10:
1) In a pennate muscle pattern _.
A) there is a broad origin and fascicles converge toward a single tendon
B) muscles look like a feather
C) there is a narrow origin diverging to a broad insertion
D) muscles appear to be straplike
2) Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?
A) external intercostals and diaphragm
B) rectus abdominis and diaphragm
C) diaphragm alone
D) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
3) Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?
A) muscle location B) the type of action they cause
C) muscle shape D) the type of muscle fibers
4) The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?
A) The muscle functions as a synergist.
B) The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region.
C) The muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint.
D) The muscle flexes and rotates a region.
5) Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other while in a sitting position?
A) the sartorius B) all of the hamstrings
C) the quadriceps femoris D) the gastrocnemius
6) What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?
A) a synergist B) a fixator C) an agonist D) an antagonist
7) Which of the choices below is the major muscle for breathing?
A) latissimus dorsi B) temporalis
C) diaphragm D) rectus abdominis
8) A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called?
A) buccinator B) zygomaticus C) platysma D) masseter
9) Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?
A) peroneus longus B) peroneus tertius
C) tibialis anterior D) extensor digitorum longus
10) Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?
A) a first-class lever B) a second-class lever
C) a third-class lever D) a fourth-class lever
Chapter 11:
1) Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and
recapturing neurotransmitters are .
A) Schwann cells B) astrocytes
C) oligodendrocytes D) microglia
2) Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?
A) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
B) innervation of cardiac muscle
C) innervation of skeletal muscle
D) innervation of glands
3) Select the correct statement about serial processing.
A) Memories are triggered by serial processing.
B) Input travels along several different pathways.
C) Smells are processed by serial pathways.
D) Spinal reflexes are an example of serial processing.
4) Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called .
A) ganglia B) tracts C) nuclei D) nerves
5) Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes?
A) The bulk of the solutions inside a cell are negatively charged.
B) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes.
C) Ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels.
D) Some ions are prevented from moving down their concentration gradients by ATP-driven pumps.
6) Nerve cell adhesion molecules (N-CAMs) .
A) release nerve growth factor
B) are crucial in the production of neurotransmitters
C) are crucial for the development of neural connections
D) are found on pathfinder neurons
7) Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?
A) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
B) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction
C) senses changes in the environment
8) The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) _
A) dendrite B) Schwann cell C) axon D) neurolemma
9) Saltatory conduction is made possible by _ .
A) erratic transmission of nerve impulses B) diphasic impulses
C) large nerve fibers D) the myelin sheath
10) Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters?
A) biogenic amine
B) ATP and other purines
C) nucleic acid
D) acetycholine
E) amino acid
Chapter 12:
1) The brain stem consists of the
A) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain B) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
C) midbrain, medulla, and pons D) midbrain only
2) Spinocerebellar tracts .
A) terminate in the spinal cord
B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum
C) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord
D) give rise to conscious experience of perception
3) Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of
A) cerebellar disease B) Huntingtons disease
C) Parkinsons disease D) spinal cord disease
4) Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except
A) production of excessive quantities of urine
B) pathologic sleep
C) loss of body temperature control
D) loss of proprioception
5) Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or
weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the _ .
A) spinal cord B) rubrospinal tracts
C) primary motor cortex D) premotor cortex
6) Which of the following is not part of the basal nuclei?
A) lentiform nucleus B) putamen
C) substantia nigra D) globus pallidus
7) Which brain waves are not normal for awake adults but are common for children?
A) Alpha B) Delta C) Beta D) Theta
8) The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the
cerebral cortex is the .
A) limbic system B) pyramids
C) thalamus D) reticular formation
9) Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in .
A) the thalamus B) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
C) sympathetic ganglia D) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
10) Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are _
A) supplementary and cerebellar-pontine B) segmental and nigrostriatal
C) pyramidal and corticospinal D) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal
Chapter 13:
1) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the
A) thoracic plexus B) lumbar plexus C) femoral plexus D) sacral plexus
2) The cranial nerve with a dual origin (brain and spinal cord) is the _ _.
A) hypoglossal B) vagus
C) glossopharyngeal D) accessory
3) Which of the following is not an example of an exteroceptor?
A) pressure
B) temperature
C) pain
D) touch
E) baroreceptor
4) Inborn or intristic reflexes are _ .
A) always mediated by the brain
B) rapid, predictable, learned responses
C) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
D) autonomic only
5) Transduction refers to conversion of .
A) receptor energy to stimulus energy
B) stimulus information to nerve impulses
C) afferent impulses to efferent impulses
D) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses
6) Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) accessory B) abducens
C) vestibulocochlear D) trigeminal
7) Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except .
A) hair follicle receptors B) tactile discs
C) Meissners corpuscles D) Pacinian corpuscles
8) If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?
A) a complete loss of sensation and movement
B) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
C) complete loss of sensation
D) a complete loss of voluntary movement
9) Striking the funny bone is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the
A) ulnar nerve B) radial nerve C) median nerve D) sciatic nerve
10) Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order):
A) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks B) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords
C) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots D) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
Chapter 14:
1) Sympathetic division stimulation causes .
A) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
B) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
C) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
D) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
2) Parasympathetic functions include .
A) allowing the body to cope with an external threat
B) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction
C) mobilizing storage energy sources
D) lens accommodation for close vision
3) The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of .
A) parasympathetic innervation B) neurosecretory substances
C) sympathetic stimulation D) vagus nerve activity
4) Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following?
A) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron
B) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion
C) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
D) synapase with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
5) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the
A) medulla B) thalamus C) hypothalamus D) cerebellum
6) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except .
A) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters
B) their effectors
C) all of the neurotransmitters
D) their efferent pathways
7) Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because .
A) preganglionic fibers are long
B) preganglionic fibers are short
C) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
D) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
8) Preparing the body for the fight-or-flight response is the role of the .
A) parasympathetic nervous system B) somatic nervous system
C) sympathetic nervous system D) cerebrum
9) Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra?
A) third lumbar B) second cervical C) first thoracic D) first coccyx
10) The possibility of some control over autonomic responses is demonstrated by .
A) biofeedback B) nightmares
C) stress-induced hypertension D) split brain studies
Chapter 15:
1) Dark adaptation _.
A) involves improvement of acuity and color vision
B) is much faster than light adaptation
C) results in inhibition of rod function
D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin
2) Light passes through the following structures in which order?
A) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
B) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor
C) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor s
D) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
3) Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect .
A) accommodation B) convergence
C) refraction D) pupil constriction
4) Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear?
A) external acoustic meatus B) pharyngotympanic tube
C) pinna D) tympanic membrane
5) Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life?
A) retinal bipolar cells B) retinal ganglion cells
C) olfactory receptor cells D) auditory outer and inner hair cells
6) In the uterus .
A) despite the fact that the fetus cannot see, functional visual cortical connections are established
B) the fetus cannot see and therefore visual cortical connections are not made
C) scanty visual connections are made that proliferate greatly during infancy
D) the fetus can see only light and shadow, but not forms, so partial visual connections are made
7) Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye .
A) divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing
B) go to the superior colliculus only
C) pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma
D) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
8) The receptor for static equilibrium is the .
A) utricle B) cochlear duct
C) semicircular canals D) macula
9) Select the correct statement about olfaction.
A) Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain.
B) Olfactory receptors have a high degree of specificity toward a single type of chemical.
C) Olfactory adaptation is only due to fading of receptor cell response.
D) Substances must be volatile and hydrophobic in order to activate olfactory receptors.
10) The tarsal plate of the eyelid
A) is connected to the levator palpebrae
B) assists in the act of winking
C) is composed of connective tissue surrounding a thin cartilage plate
D) is connected to the superior rectus muscle
Chapter 16:
1) Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the
A) thyroid gland B) thymus gland
C) pancreas D) adrenal medulla
2) ACTH _.
A) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion
B) causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla
C) is not a tropic hormone
D) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
3) The only amine hormone to act like a steroid is
4) The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because .
A) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional
B) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location
C) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
D) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
5) Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by _ _.
A) exerting only a minor effect on body metabolism
B) causing a reduction in the number of blood vessel adrenergic receptors, and therefore decreasing blood pressure
C) acting to decrease basal metabolic rate
D) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
6) Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because _.
A) peptide hormones always enter the cell membrane and elicit a response without assistance from other messengers
B) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
C) hormones alter cellular operations through stimulation of a gene directly
D) the hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm as a unit
7) Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?
A) epinephrine B) aldosterone C) estrogen D) cortisone
8) Oxytocin .
A) is an adenohypophyseal secretion
B) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
C) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
D) controls milk production
9) Which organ does not have hormone production?
A) heart B) kidney C) skin D) liver
10) Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include _.
A) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
B) formation of a specific protein kinase that acts on a series of extracellular intermediates
C) cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase formation of an active second messenger
D) hormone binding to intracellular receptors
Chapter 17:
1) Complications of aplastic anemia generally do not include .
A) bleeding disorders
B) suppressed immunity
C) impaired formation of all formed elements
D) increase of leukocytes as a result of erythrocyte loss
2) As red blood cells age _.
A) ATP production increases
B) membranes wear out and the cells become damaged
C) iron will be excreted by the kidneys
D) they will eventually be excreted by the digestive system
3) Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?
A) delivery of oxygen to body cells
B) prevention of blood loss
C) maintenance of normal pH in body tissues
D) transport of metabolic wastes from cells
4) Place the following in correct developmental sequence:
1. reticulocyte
2. proerythroblast
3. normoblast
4. late erythroblast
A) 2, 1, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 2, 4 D) 2, 4, 3, 1
5) James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is
A) within the normal range B) abnormally low
C) above normal D) normal only if James is an infant
6) Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?
A) pluripotent stem cell (hemocytoblast) B) polymorphonuclear cell
C) NK cell D) megakaryocyte
7) Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?
A) excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
B) a defect in the clotting cascade
C) thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets
D) vitamin K deficiency
8) The slowest step in the clotting process is
A) binding fibrin strands B) formation of prothrombin activator
C) release of PF3 D) production of fibrin strands
9) Blood is a .
A) suspension B) colloid
C) heterogeneous compound D) homogeneous compound
10) Which blood type is called the universal donor?
A) A B) O C) AB D) B
Chapter 18:
1) Select the correct statement about cardiac output.
A) If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected
ventricle would be decreased.
B) A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.
C) Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases.
D) Decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume.
2) Isovolumetric contraction _.
A) occurs only in people with heart valve defects
B) refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers
C) occurs immediately after the aortic and pulmonary valves close
D) occurs while the AV valves are open
3) Which of these vessels receives blood during ventricular systole?
A) both the aorta and pulmonary trunk B) pulmonary veins only
C) aorta only D) pulmonary arteries only
4) Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?
A) opening and closing of the heart valves
B) excitation of the SA node
C) friction of blood against the chamber walls
D) closure of the heart valves
5) The time of day most hazardous for heart attacks is _.
A) morning B) noontime C) evening D) during sleep
6) During the period of ventricular filling .
A) pressure in the heart is at its peak
B) the atria remain in diastole
C) blood flows passively through the atria and the open AV valves into the ventricles
D) it is represented by the P wave on the ECG
7) To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the .
A) second intercostal space to the left of the sternum
B) second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
C) fifth intercostal space inferior to the left nipple
D) fifth right intercostal space
8) When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by .
A) finding the papillary muscles
B) tracing out where the auricles connect
C) locating the apex
D) noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls
9) Norepinephrine acts on the heart by
A) causing threshold to be reached more quickly
B) blocking the action of calcium
C) causing a decrease in stroke volume
D) decreasing heart contractility
10) Which vessel of the heart receives blood during right ventricular systole?
A) aorta B) venae cavae
C) pulmonary trunk D) pulmonary veins
Chapter 19:
1) The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is _.
A) any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate
B) shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea
C) always fatal
D) the form of shock caused by anaphylaxis
2) Which of the following is true about veins?
A) Up to 35% of total body blood is in venous circulation at any given time.
B) Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.
C) Veins have a small lumen in relation to the thickness of the vessel wall.
D) Venous valves are formed from the tunica media.
3) Which of the following would not result in the dilation of the feeder arterioles and opening of the precapillary sphincters in systemic capillary beds?
A) a decrease in local tissue oxygen content
B) a local increase in pH
C) a local increase in histamine
D) an increase in local tissue carbon dioxide
4) Histologically, the is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer.
A) tunica adventitia B) tunica externa
C) tunica media D) tunica intima
5) Secondary hypertension can be caused by _ .
A) obesity B) stress C) smoking D) arteriosclerosis
6) A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the .
A) left side of the head and neck
B) right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
C) myocardium of the heart
D) left upper arm
7) A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except .
A) increased incidence of coronary artery disease
B) decreased size of the heart muscle
C) increased damage to blood vessel endothelium
D) increased work of the left ventricle
8) What do the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale become at birth?
A) ligamentum teres; fossa ovalis
B) ligamentum arteriosum; ligamentum teres
C) fossa ovalis; ligamentum arteriosum
D) ligamentum arteriosum; fossa ovalis
9) Select the correct statement about blood flow.
A) It is measured in mm Hg.
B) It is relatively constant through all body organs.
C) Blood flow through the entire vascular system is equivalent to cardiac output.
D) It is greatest where resistance is highest.
10) The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following? A) a decrease in oxygen levels B) a decrease in carbon dioxide
C) changes in arterial pressure D) an increase in oxygen levels
Chapter 20:
1) Lymph leaves a lymph node via .
A) afferent lymphatic vessels B) efferent lymphatic vessels
C) the cortical sinus D) the subscapular sinus
2) Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the .
A) cervical region B) axillary region
C) lower extremities D) inguinal region
3) Lymph capillaries are absent in all but which of the following?
A) bones and teeth B) CNS
C) bone marrow D) digestive organs
4) Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.
A) Lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into the blood.
B) Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.
C) Once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently.
D) T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances.
5) Which of the following is not a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?
A) Peyers patch B) appendix C) thymus D) tonsil
6) Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph flow?
A) breathing B) valves in lymph vessel walls
C) skeletal muscle contraction D) smooth muscle contraction
7) Functions of the spleen include all of those below except .
A) storage of blood platelets
B) storage of iron
C) removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood
D) forming crypts that trap bacteria
8) The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not:
A) produce hormones B) have a cortex and medulla
C) have lymphocytes D) directly fight antigens
9) Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?
A) monocytes B) basophils C) lymphocytes D) macrophages
10) Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?
A) red blood cells B) plasma proteins
C) ions D) water


Write a review

Your Name:

Your Review: Note: HTML is not translated!

Rating: Bad           Good

Enter the code in the box below:


Once the order is placed, the order will be delivered to your email less than 24 hours, mostly within 4 hours. 

If you have questions, you can contact us here