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Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which term best describes the study of drugs and their action on the body?
d. Disease management
2. The most common source of drugs today is:
c. Chemical synthesis.
d. Genetic bioengineering.
3. The agency that regulates drug testing and approves new drugs is the:
a. Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER).
b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
c. National Institutes of Health (NIH).
d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
4. The phase of drug testing that is performed to look for rare or serious
adverse effects after the drug is marketed is:
a. Phase I. b. Phase II. c. Phase III.
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d. Phase IV.
5. What organization is officially responsible for establishing public standards that approved drugs must continue to meet?
a. The Physicians Desk Reference (PDR)
b. The American Hospital Formulary Service (AHFS)
c. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
d. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
6. The name given to a drug that is considered the nonproprietary name and is not owned by any particular pharmaceutical company is the:
a. Chemical name. b. Generic name. c. Trade name.
d. Brand name.
7. A 21-year-old pregnant female has been exposed to the drug Virazole, which has been reported to cause damage to the fetus. This type of drug exposure is referred to as:
a. An adverse drug reaction (ADR).
b. A life-threatening reaction.
8. Drugs that do not go directly into the systemic circulation after being absorbed and are metabolized through the liver describes a:
a. Steady state.
b. First-pass effect.
c. Therapeutic range.
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9. A physician would like a patient to receive acetaminophen via the enteral route. Your choice of administration may include:
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III
10. Administration of 80 mg propranolol given orally (PO) produces the same response as 1 mg intravenously (IV). The difference in dosage is explained by:
a. The first-pass effect.
c. Protein binding.
11. The most common and convenient route of drug administration is:
12. A malnourished patient is susceptible to an increase in drug response
because of all except which of the following?
a. A malnourished patient has less serum albumin.
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b. The free, unbound drug is an active drug and will lead to greater drug response.
c. Less drug is absorbed systemically.
d. Much of the drug will be free within the bloodstream.
13. The effect of administering a water-soluble drug to an infant, who has a higher percentage of total body water compared to an adult, would be:
a. Decreased effect.
b. The same effect.
c. Increased effect.
d. An additive effect.
14. The mechanisms responsible for metabolism of rifampin in the liver include:
I. Drug oxidation.
II. Enzyme inhibition.
III. The cytochrome P-450 system.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II, and III
15. After drugs are metabolized, they can be eliminated from the body through the:
c. Feces and urine.
d. All of the above.
16. The potency of a drug is best described as:
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18. When can occur?
a drug binds to a receptor site, all except which of the following
a. An affinity of the drug for a particular receptor site.
b. The degree in which the drug can be cleared from the body.
c. The route of the drug.
d. The amount of drug required to produce the response desired.
17. Excretion of drugs through the kidneys is affected by all except which of the following?
a. Glomerular filtration
b. Drug oxidation
c. Impaired renal function
d. Tubular secretion and reabsorption
a. An ion channel can be opened or closed.
b. Biochemical messengers that initiate chemical reactions can be
c. A normal cellular function can be turned on or off.
d. The therapeutic response produced is directly proportional to the number of sites occupied.
19. A drug that does not elicit a response:
a. Is an agonist.
b. Increases drug action.
c. Is an antagonist.
d. Activates the receptor.
20. A cell that becomes less responsive to a drug after exposure over time
is a condition called:
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d. Low therapeutic index.
21. You note that a physician has made a new entry on a patients chart. The entry reads 500 mg acetaminophen PO QID. What does this order mean?
a. 500 mg acetaminophen by mouth, four times daily
b. 500 mg acetaminophen per order, six times daily
c. 500 mg acetaminophen preop, then daily
d. 500 mg acetaminophen postop, then every 4 hours
22. Which of the following routes of drug administration completely bypasses the absorption step before entering the bloodstream?
23. To maintain a steady state of drug concentration in the plasma, a drug should be administered by which of the following methods?
a. Intramuscular injection
b. Continuous IV infusion
c. Intravenous bolus
24. Which of the following terms explains why a patient may require an increased amount of a drug after repeated use to produce the same therapeutic effect?
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25. Treatment for drug overdoses and poisoning includes all of the following except the:
a. Administration of antidotes.
b. Use of an adsorbent.
c. Administration of emetics.
d. Use of a metabolite.
Write T if the statement is true and F if the statement is false.
______ 1. The FDA considers herbals the same as drugs because they are derived from plants that were forerunners of many current medications. ______ 2. An interaction between two drugs that causes one drug to have no direct effect but increases the response of the other drug is referred to as the drugs potency.
______ 3. Administration of a drug directly to the lungs is a form of topical delivery.
______ 4. Continuous infusion gives a regulated, consistent dosage over time, referred to as a steady state. On the other hand, a bolus dose causes fluctuations in the plasma drug concentration.
______ 5. As a drug increases in selectivity to a particular cell or tissue, the less useful it becomes.
______ 6. Fat-soluble drugs have a decreased effect in patients who are obese.
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______ 7. For a drug to be excreted from the body, it has to be metabolized so that it is water soluble.
______ 8. Liver function tests should be conducted to determine if a patient can metabolize a prescribed drug.
______ 9. Emetics are agents that are administered to induce vomiting in the event of poisoning.
______10. A formulary is a list of drugs that a particular health care system stocks and dispenses.
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement. 1. A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction can result in ________________.
2. Drugs administered directly to the lungs are given via the ____________ route.
3. Drugs given parenterally go directly to the ________________ and result in rapid absorption.
4. Repeated use of the same drug may result in a decreased response, requiring an increased amount of the drug to produce the same effect. This phenomenon is known as ________________.
5. In order for digoxin to be effective, an appropriate amount of the drug must be present in the blood. This blood level is known as the ________________.
6. The _______________ name of a drug is the name assigned by the United States Adopted Name (USAN) Council.
7. Drugs that are released slowly once administered are referred to as _______________
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8. Patients who are ordered nothing by mouth but are prescribed a medication to be given enterally may be administered the drug _____________.
9. Biotransformation occurs when drugs are converted to a ____________ form for elimination.
10. In order for drugs to be effective without causing toxicity, they must be maintained within the ____________.
Answer the following questions or statements.
1. What is the difference between an endogenous and exogenous chemical?
2. Explain the difference in how agonist and antagonist drugs react once combined with a receptor.
3. Why are patients with liver disease likely to have greater than expected effects from prescribed drugs?
4. What is the purpose of a do not use list of common abbreviations?
5. What basic safeguards should be followed in order to reduce
medication administration errors?
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