MICROBIOLOGY A Systems Approach 4TH EDITION BY COWAN TEST BANK

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MICROBIOLOGY A Systems Approach 4TH EDITION BY COWAN TEST BANK

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MICROBIOLOGY A Systems Approach 4TH EDITION BY COWAN TEST BANK

Chapter 05

Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. Protists include
  2. yeasts and molds.
  3. algae and protozoa.
  4. helminths.
  5. bacteria.
  6. viruses.

 

 

 

  1. The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the
  2. nucleus.
  3. Golgi apparatus.
  4. mitochondrion.
  5. lysosome.
  6. ribosome.

 

 

  1. The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired flagella by endosymbiosis with a/n _____ ancestor and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a/n _____ ancestor.
  2. protozoan, algae
  3. archaea, cyanobacteria
  4. spirochete, cyanobacteria
  5. helminth, algae

 

 

 

  1. The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the emergence of
  2. archaea.
  3. bacteria.
  4. prokaryotes.
  5. eukaryotes.
  6. viruses.

 

 

 

  1. Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular
  2. symbiosis.
  3. parasitism.
  4. commensalism.
  5. mutualism.

 

 

  1. Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells?
  2. nucleus
  3. mitochondria
  4. endoplasmic reticulum
  5. lysosomes
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

 

  1. Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella because only eukaryotic flagella
  2. are used for cell motility.
  3. facilitate chemotaxis.
  4. facilitate phototaxis.
  5. are long, whip-like structures.
  6. contain microtubules.

 

 

  1. Cilia are exhibited by certain
  2. protozoa.
  3. algae.
  4. fungi.
  5. bacteria.
  6. viruses.

 

 

 

 

  1. There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia.
  2. filaments
  3. microtubules
  4. active proteins
  5. cilia
  6. endoflagella.

 

 

 

  1. Cell walls are not typically possessed by:
  2. protozoa.
  3. algae.
  4. fungi.
  5. bacteria.

 

 

  1. The eukaryotic cells glycocalyx is
  2. mostly polysaccharide.
  3. the site where many metabolic reactions occur.
  4. also called the cell wall.
  5. composed of many diverse proteins.
  6. a protective mechanism against osmotic lysis.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a function of the glycocalyx exhibited by eukaryotes?
  2. protection
  3. adherence
  4. movement
  5. reception of chemical signals

 

 

 

 

  1. Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of
  2. protozoa.
  3. algae.
  4. fungi.
  5. bacteria.
  6. helminths.

 

 

 

 

  1. The eukaryotic cell membrane is composed of
  2. sterols.
  3. proteins.
  4. phospholipids.
  5. Sterols, proteins, and phospholipids.
  6. Sterols and phospholipids only.

 

 

 

  1. The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the
  2. ribosome.
  3. nucleolus.
  4. nucleus.
  5. Golgi apparatus.
  6. lysosome.

 

 

  1. When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible, thread-like mass called the
  2. nuclear envelope.
  3. nucleosome.
  4. nucleolus.
  5. nucleoplasm.
  6. chromatin.

 

 

 

  1. Histones are
  2. found in polyribosomes.
  3. enzymes found in lysosomes.
  4. proteins of the cytoskeleton.
  5. proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus.
  6. on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

 

 

 

  1. The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear
  2. histones.
  3. chromatin.
  4. pores.
  5. endoplasmic reticulum.
  6. inclusions.

 

 

 

  1. The cells series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the
  2. mitochondria.
  3. lysosomes.
  4. Golgi apparatus.
  5. chloroplasts.
  6. endoplasmic reticulum.

 

 

  1. An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion is the
  2. mitochondrion.
  3. lysosome.
  4. Golgi apparatus.
  5. chloroplast.
  6. endoplasmic reticulum.

 

 

 

 

  1. Protists with contractile vacuoles
  2. are algae.
  3. use them to expel excess water from the cell.
  4. typically live in salty seawater.
  5. use them for motility.
  6. have greater motility.

 

 

 

  1. A/n _____ originates from the Golgi apparatus as one type of vesicle that contains a variety of enzymes for intracellular digestion.
  2. centrosome
  3. lysosome
  4. magnetosome
  5. inclusion
  6. ribosome

 

 

 

  1. Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found?
  2. mitochondrion
  3. lysosome
  4. Golgi apparatus
  5. chloroplast
  6. endoplasmic reticulum

 

 

  1. Mitochondria possess all of the following except
  2. enzymes for metabolism.
  3. cristae.
  4. electron transport chain proteins.
  5. enzymes for photosynthesis.
  6. 70S ribosomes.

 

 

 

  1. Which organelle is found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi?
  2. mitochondria
  3. lysosomes
  4. Golgi apparatus
  5. chloroplasts
  6. endoplasmic reticulum

 

 

  1. In eukaryotic cells, which of the following contains DNA?
  2. nucleus, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus
  3. nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus
  4. nucleus, nucleolus, and Golgi apparatus
  5. nucleus, chloroplast, and mitochondrion
  6. nucleus, chloroplast, and peroxisome

 

 

 

  1. Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called _____ that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called _____.
  2. thylakoids; stroma
  3. granna; stroma
  4. cristae; stroma
  5. cristae; matrix
  6. thylakoid; matrix

 

 

  1. The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is
  2. 30S.
  3. 40S.
  4. 50S.
  5. 70S.
  6. 80S.

 

 

 

 

  1. In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations: scattered in the _____ and on the surface of _____.
  2. cytoplasm; Golgi apparatus
  3. nucleus; Golgi apparatus
  4. cytoplasm; endoplasmic reticulum
  5. nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum

 

 

  1. The cytoskeleton
  2. anchors organelles.
  3. provides support.
  4. functions in movements of the cytoplasm.
  5. helps maintain cell shape.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

 

  1. Filamentous fungi are called
  2. pseudohyphae.
  3. septa.
  4. molds.
  5. dimorphic.
  6. mycelium.

 

 

  1. When buds remain attached, fungi form a chain of yeast cells called
  2. pseudohyphae.
  3. septa.
  4. molds.
  5. dimorphic.
  6. mycelium.

 

 

 

  1. Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called
  2. dimorphic.
  3. saprobes.
  4. pseudohyphae.
  5. spores.
  6. parasites.

 

 

 

  1. Which is not a characteristic of fungi?
  2. cells have cell walls
  3. photosynthetic
  4. include single-celled and filamentous forms
  5. heterotrophic nutrition
  6. can use a wide variety of nutrients

 

 

 

  1. The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called
  2. conidiophores.
  3. pseudohyphae.
  4. hyphae.
  5. septate.
  6. asci.

 

 

  1. Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals. These fungi are called
  2. saprobes.
  3. parasites.
  4. antagonists.
  5. free-living.
  6. mutualistic.

 

 

 

  1. The woven, intertwining mass of hyphae that makes up the body of a mold is a
  2. stem.
  3. rhizoid.
  4. stock.
  5. bud.
  6. mycelium.

 

 

 

  1. Fungal asexual spores
  2. are only produced under harmful environmental conditions.
  3. produce offspring with different combinations of genes from the original fungus.
  4. cannot be seen using a light microscope.
  5. are the products of meiotic division by a single parent cell.
  6. are used to identify fungi.

 

 

 

  1. What two categories of fungi cause human diseases?
  2. primary and secondary
  3. primary and vegetative
  4. opportunistic and primary
  5. secondary and opportunistic
  6. vegetative and reproductive

 

 

  1. Pfiesteria is a
  2. toxic fungus.
  3. toxic algae.
  4. toxic helminth.
  5. toxic protozoan.
  6. bacterial endospore.

 

 

 

  1. During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a/an
  2. endospore.
  3. cyst.
  4. seed.
  5. trophozoite.
  6. sporozoa.

 

 

  1. Protozoan cells do not exhibit
  2. motility.
  3. ectoplasm and endoplasm.
  4. heterotrophic nutrition.
  5. formation of a cyst stage.
  6. a cell wall.

 

 

 

 

  1. The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the
  2. trophozoite.
  3. cyst.
  4. sporozoite.
  5. oocyst.
  6. food vacuole.

 

 

  1. A protozoan having a flagellum would be classified in the genus:
  2. Entamoeba.
  3. Toxoplasma.
  4. Trypanosoma.
  5. Plasmodium.
  6. Enterobius.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The group of protozoa that are not motile are the
  2. amoebas.
  3. ciliates.
  4. trophozoites.
  5. Plasmodium sp.
  6. dimorphics.

 

 

 

  1. The one-celled organism seen in your microscope moves very slowly, by protruding its cytoplasm. The specimen was taken from a patient having diarrhea. You would predict that the patient has an infection caused by this pathogen:
  2. Entamoeba.
  3. Toxoplasma.
  4. Trichomonas.
  5. Giardia.
  6. Plasmodium.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which is mismatched?
  2. Giardia transmitted by feces in drinking water
  3. Histoplasma causes Ohio Valley fever
  4. Trichomonas sexually transmitted
  5. Plasmodium causes Chagas disease
  6. Trypanosoma causes African sleeping sickness

 

 

  1. Protozoan endoplasm contains
  2. ectoplasm.
  3. mitochondria.
  4. flagella.
  5. oral groves.
  6. cilia.

 

 

 

 

  1. Protozoan cysts are
  2. part of all protozoan life cycles.
  3. necessary for transmission to a new host.
  4. analogous to bacterial endospores.
  5. the primary form of replication.
  6. are involved in binary fission.

 

 

 

  1. Amoebic dysentery is most commonly contracted through:
  2. fecal-oral route from contaminated food or water.
  3. direct transmission from one host to another.
  4. puncture wounds.
  5. insect bites.
  6. blood products.

 

 

 

 

  1. The vector for the trypanosome of Chagas disease is the
  2. mosquito.
  3. deer tick.
  4. tsetse fly.
  5. reduviid bug.
  6. nematode.

 

 

  1. All of the following are helminths except
  2. pinworms.
  3. flukes.
  4. trypanosomes.
  5. roundworms.
  6. tapeworms.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following does not pertain to helminths?
  2. in the kingdom Protista
  3. parasitic worms
  4. eggs and sperm used for reproduction
  5. often alternate hosts in complex life cycles
  6. have various organ systems

 

 

 

  1. Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of
  2. protozoa.
  3. algae.
  4. helminths.
  5. fungi.
  6. yeasts.

 

 

 

 

  1. All of the following are helminths except
  2. tapeworms.
  3. flukes.
  4. flatworms.
  5. round worms.
  6. All of the choices are helminthes.

 

 

  1. Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host?
  2. primary host
  3. secondary host
  4. definitive host
  5. transport host
  6. Mating takes place in all hosts.

 

 

 

 

  1. Larval development of helminths occurs in which host?
  2. primary host
  3. intermediate host
  4. definitive host
  5. transport host
  6. Larval development takes place in all hosts.

 

 

  1. Parasitic helminths have a highly developed ______ system to enhance host transmission.
  2. digestive
  3. nervous
  4. respiratory
  5. muscular
  6. reproductive

 

 

 

  1. In humans, helminths generally infect the
  2. digestive tract.
  3. urinary tract.
  4. nervous system.
  5. muscular system.
  6. skin.

 

 

  1. After returning from a trip to Africa, Tom begins to feel very tired and weak. He has severe anemia. A blood smear reveals a protozoan is present in his blood. The health care provider tells Tom he has malaria. Which of the following could be the causative agent of his disease?
  2. HIV
  3. Taenia solium
  4. Plasmodium malariae
  5. Trichophyton rubrum
  6. Giardia lamblia

 

 

 

  1. Eating undercooked meat can lead to food-borne disease via helminthic infection. What is the common host for Taenia solium?
  2. geese
  3. ducks
  4. pigs
  5. cows
  6. chickens

 

 

 

 

True / False Questions

 

  1. The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols.

 

  1. The cell walls of fungi and algae are chemically identical to the prokaryotic cell wall.

 

  1. Chromosomes are generally not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division.

 

  1. The nuclear envelope is a single layer.

 

  1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes.

 

  1. Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.

 

  1. Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility.

 

  1. Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses.

 

 

 

  1. All fungi can form hyphae.

 

  1. In humans, fungi can only infect the skin.

 

  1. All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants and animals.

 

  1. Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually.
  2. All algae have chloroplasts.

 

  1. Plankton are floating communities of helminths.

 

  1. There are no algae that can cause human disease.

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. You are looking at an organism of some sort under the microscopic lens. It has a cell wall, no chloroplasts, and a nucleus. Your prediction would be that this organism is a/an:
  2. bacterium
  3. fungus
  4. alga
  5. protozoan
  6. virus

 

 

 

  1. You are looking at an organism of some sort under the microscopic lens. It is obviously multicellular, with no cell wall. Your prediction would be that this organism is a:
  2. bacterium
  3. fungus
  4. alga
  5. protozoan
  6. helminth

 

 

 

  1. When analyzing a specimen for identification purposes, you detect the presence of large amounts of histone protein. You predict that:
  2. the organism is a prokaryote.
  3. the organism has no nuclear membrane.
  4. the organism has a large genome.
  5. the organism is photosynthetic.

 

 

 

  1. In the life cycle of the pinworm Enterobius, a common infection in children, the child has the adult worm in the intestine. The adult worm releases eggs, which are then transmitted out of the body via feces. The child will scratch the anal area, picking up the worm eggs and re-inserting them into the mouth.  For this helminth life cycle, the human is  _____ host.
  2. intermediate
  3. definitive
  4. primary
  5. both intermediate and definitive

 

 

 

  1. The fungi do not prefer to reproduce sexually compared to their frequent asexual reproductive mode. What would be the reason behind this infrequency of sexual reproduction?
  2. Sexual reproduction requires two genetically different strains of the fungus to come together.
  3. Sexual reproduction is more energy-intensive than asexual reproduction.
  4. In asexual reproduction, one parent divides.
  5. All statements are true.

 

 

 

  1. What do the protozoans Naegleria, Toxoplasma, and Trypanosoma have in common?
  2. They are all motile.
  3. They are all associated with brain infections.
  4. They are all transmitted by feces.
  5. They are all multicellular parasites.

 

 

 

 

  1. Upon viewing a specimen through microscopic techniques, you realize the cells all contain ribosomes. Based upon this information, you eliminate which of the following from your list of potential microorganisms:
  2. bacterium.
  3. archaea.
  4. eukaryote.
  5. none can be eliminated based upon this structural observation alone.

 

 

 

  1. Select that statement that reflects evidence that directly supports the Endosymbiotic Theory:
  2. Enzymes for photosynthesis are found embedded in membranes of the Golgi apparatus
  3. Lysosomes contain their own DNA in the form of plasmids
  4. The ETS is localized to the cell membrane in bacterial cells while in eukaryotes it is localized to the cristae
  5. Glycolysis occurs in the matrix in bacterial cells

 

===============================================================================

 

 

 

Chapter 15

Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a/an
  2. PAMP.
  3. marker.
  4. hapten.
  5. antibody.
  6. antigen.

 

 

  1. Acquired specific immunity involves the response of
  2. skin barriers.
  3. B and T lymphocytes.
  4. lysozyme.
  5. mucus membranes.
  6. interferon.

 

 

  1. The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where
  2. immune responses to antigen occur.
  3. stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
  4. antigen is filtered from the blood.
  5. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
  6. T lymphocytes complete maturation.

 

 

 

  1. The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called
  2. antibodies.
  3. sensitized T cells.
  4. activated macrophages.
  5. plasma cells.
  6. bursa cells.

 

 

  1. Helper T cells
  2. secrete antibodies.
  3. function in allergic reactions.
  4. directly destroy target cells.
  5. suppress immune reactions.
  6. activate B cells and other T cells.

 

 

  1. Plasma cells
  2. secrete antibodies.
  3. function in allergic reactions.
  4. directly destroy target cells.
  5. suppress immune reactions.
  6. activate B cells and other T cells.

 

 

 

  1. Lymphocyte maturation involves
  2. hormonal signals that initiate development.
  3. B cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
  4. T cells maturing in the thymus.
  5. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

  1. What type of cells secrete antibodies?
  2. memory B cells
  3. cytotoxic T cells
  4. plasma cells
  5. helper T cells
  6. antigen-presenting cells

 

 

 

  1. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
  2. are the result of genetic expression.
  3. function in recognition of self molecules.
  4. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.
  5. aid in cellular development.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

 

  1. The major histocompatibility complex is
  2. a set of glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells.
  3. a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins.
  4. found on the third chromosome.
  5. located in the thymus gland.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

 

  1. Class II MHC genes code for
  2. certain secreted complement components.
  3. self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes.
  4. all HLA antigens.
  5. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

 

  1. Class I MHC genes code for
  2. certain secreted complement components.
  3. self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes.
  4. all HLA antigens.
  5. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.

 

 

 

  1. The histocompatibility complex proteins function in
  2. recognition of self.
  3. antibody proliferation.
  4. B-cell maturation.
  5. T-cell maturation.

 

 

 

  1. MHC molecules are found on all of the following cells except
  2. leukocytes.
  3. eosinophils.
  4. epithelial cells.
  5. red blood cells.
  6. islet of langerhans cells.

 

 

 

  1. Lymphocytes
  2. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
  3. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens.
  4. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
  5. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

  1. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all of the following except
  2. two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
  3. two identical light polypeptide chains.
  4. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
  5. four antigen binding sites.
  6. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.

 

 

  1. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly diversified from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the _____ region.
  2. variable
  3. joining
  4. constant
  5. light
  6. hinge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not true of the antigen-independent period of lymphocyte development?
  2. Lymphocytes form from stem cells in the bone marrow.
  3. Random genetic rearrangements occur to produce different surface protein receptors.
  4. Mature lymphocytes populate lymphatic organs and encounter antigens.
  5. Lymphocytes with specificity for self are destroyed.
  6. Many lymphocytes with different specificities are formed.

 

 

 

  1. Destruction of lymphocytes with self-specificity is called
  2. clonal deletion.
  3. proliferation.
  4. clonal selection.
  5. differentiation.
  6. hypersensitivity.

 

  1. Properties of effective antigens include all of the following except
  2. foreign to the immune system.
  3. molecular complexity.
  4. large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000.
  5. large polymers made up of repeating subunits.
  6. cells or large, complex molecules.

 

 

  1. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an
  2. epitope.
  3. hapten.
  4. antigen binding site.
  5. variable region.

 

 

  1. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed
  2. epitopes.
  3. haptens.
  4. antigen binding sites.
  5. variable regions.

 

 

 

  1. Superantigens are
  2. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
  3. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
  4. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
  5. antigens that evoke allergic reactions.

 

 

  1. Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called
  2. superantigens.
  3. heterophilic antigens.
  4. allergens.
  5. autoantigens.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a property of B cells?
  2. produce plasma cells and memory cells
  3. low numbers circulating in the blood
  4. require antigen presented with MHC proteins
  5. receptors called immunoglobins
  6. mature in the bone marrow

 

  1. Antigen presenting cells
  2. include dendritic cells.
  3. include macrophages.
  4. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
  5. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

  1. T-cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires
  2. typically a protein antigen.
  3. binding of the T cell to a class II MHC receptor on a macrophage.
  4. binding of the T cell to a site on the antigen.
  5. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

 

  1. During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine _____, which activates T helper cells.
  2. interferon
  3. interleukin-1
  4. interleukin-2
  5. histamine

 

 

  1. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?
  2. is called the crystallizable fragment
  3. forms the antigen binding sites
  4. contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells
  5. contains an effector molecule that can fix complement
  6. determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs

 

  1. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule, thereby disrupting their activity?
  2. neutralization
  3. opsonization
  4. complement fixation
  5. agglutination
  6. anamnestic response

 

 

  1. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?
  2. neutralization
  3. opsonization
  4. complement fixation
  5. agglutination
  6. anamnestic response

 

 

  1. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
  2. neutralization
  3. opsonization
  4. complement fixation
  5. agglutination
  6. anamnestic response

 

 

 

  1. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
  2. neutralization
  3. opsonization
  4. complement fixation
  5. agglutination
  6. anamnestic response

 

 

  1. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is
  2. IgA.
  3. IgD.
  4. IgE.
  5. IgG.
  6. IgM.

 

 

 

 

  1. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
  2. IgA
  3. IgD
  4. IgE
  5. IgG
  6. IgM

 

 

  1. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is
  2. IgA.
  3. IgD.
  4. IgE.
  5. IgG.
  6. IgM.

 

 

 

  1. All of the following are characteristics of IgM except
  2. has 10 antigen binding sites.
  3. contains a central J chain.
  4. is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
  5. can serve as a B-cell receptor.
  6. is a dimer.

 

  1. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
  2. IgM only
  3. IgG only
  4. IgD only
  5. IgM and IgG
  6. IgE and IgA

 

 

  1. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are
  2. IgM only.
  3. IgG only.
  4. IgD only.
  5. IgM and IgD.
  6. IgD and IgE.

 

 

  1. _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
  2. IgG
  3. IgM
  4. IgA
  5. IgD
  6. IgE

 

 

 

  1. Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one epitope.
  2. variable
  3. FAb
  4. Fc
  5. terminal
  6. hinge

 

 

  1. An activated TH cell produces ___, which is a growth factor for T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells.
  2. interleukin-1
  3. interleukin-2
  4. interleukin-12
  5. antiserum
  6. complement

 

 

  1. What process generates many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens?
  2. antigen expression
  3. antibody production
  4. clonal expansion
  5. antigen presentation
  6. opsonization

 

  1. The most significant cells in graft rejection are
  2. helper T cells.
  3. suppressor T cells.
  4. cytotoxic T cells.
  5. delayed hypersensitivity T cells.
  6. natural killer (NK) cells.

 

 

  1. Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
  2. helper T cells
  3. suppressor T cells
  4. cytotoxic T cells
  5. delayed hypersensitivity T cells
  6. natural killer (NK) cells

 

 

  1. Cytotoxic T cells
  2. are activated by free, soluble antigens.
  3. lack specificity for antigen.
  4. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
  5. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells.

 

  1. Which of the following is not a target for TC cells?
  2. bacteria
  3. virus-infected cells
  4. cancer cells
  5. human transplanted liver
  6. pig transplanted heart

 

 

  1. Specific immunity provides long-lasting protection through the production of ____.
  2. antibodies
  3. plasma cells
  4. T helper cells
  5. memory cells
  6. phagocytotic cells

 

 

  1. An example of artificial passive immunity would be
  2. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
  3. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
  4. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
  5. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

 

 

  1. An example of natural passive immunity would be
  2. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
  3. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
  4. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
  5. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

 

 

 

  1. An example of artificial active immunity would be
  2. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
  3. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
  4. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
  5. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

 

 

  1. An example of natural active immunity would be
  2. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
  3. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
  4. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
  5. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

 

 

 

  1. Edward Jenners work involved
  2. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
  3. development of passive immunotherapy.
  4. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
  5. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.

 

  1. Immunotherapy is the
  2. use of antitoxins.
  3. use of immune serum globulin.
  4. conferring of passive immunity.
  5. administering of preformed antibodies.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

  1. High titers of specific antibodies are characteristic of
  2. specific immune globulin (SIG).
  3. gamma globulin.
  4. immune serum globulin (ISG).
  5. attenuated vaccines.
  6. toxoids.

 

 

  1. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by
  2. removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
  3. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.
  4. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture.
  5. long-term subculturing of the microbe.

 

 

  1. Live, attenuated vaccines
  2. include the Sabin polio vaccine.
  3. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
  4. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
  5. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

  1. Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines
  2. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
  3. are always genetically engineered.
  4. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
  5. confer passive immunity.
  6. utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen.

 

  1. Antitoxins
  2. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
  3. are always genetically engineered.
  4. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
  5. confer passive immunity.
  6. utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen.

 

 

  1. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make
  2. adjuvant.
  3. booster.
  4. antibodies to toxin.
  5. gamma globulin.
  6. Trojan horse recombinant vaccine.

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?
  2. adjuvant
  3. booster
  4. antibodies to toxin
  5. gamma globulin
  6. Trojan horse recombinant vaccine

 

 

  1. All nucleated cells contain
  2. class I MHC.
  3. class II MHC.
  4. secretory antibodies.
  5. IgE receptors.
  6. IgD receptors.

 

 

 

  1. During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis?
  2. primary
  3. secondary
  4. tertiary
  5. quaternary

 

 

 

 

 

True / False Questions

 

  1. Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.

 

 

  1. Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.

 

  1. Activation of B cells occurs when antigen binds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors.

 

  1. Clonal selection requires the presence of foreign antigens.

 

  1. After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.

 

  1. The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant fits.

 

  1. The structural and functional differences that distinguish immunoglobulin isotypes are due to variations associated with their Fc fragments.

 

  1. One plasma cell will secrete antibodies of various classes, but the antibodies will all have the same specificity.

 

  1. The secondary response to an antigen is more rapid and robust than the primary response.

 

  1. Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. The array of potential antibodies to the variety of possible antigens is amazing. Which statement explains this development?
  2. Recombination of hundreds of genes for antigen receptors occurs during the developmental stage of lymphocyte production.
  3. Mutations in the antibody gene occur within the activated B cells, since they meet the antigen.
  4. There is a shuffling of genes that code for self markers as well as nonself markers, mixing them together and producing reactive lymphocytes to those markers.
  5. The existing antibody molecules change their shapes, allowing them to fit with a large number of antigens.

 

 

  1. A cytotoxic T lymphocyte, having been activated against a particular viral antigen, sees this same antigen on a host body cell. What will happen?
  2. The cytotoxic T cell will produce antibodies against the antigen.
  3. The antigen will move inside of the host body cell, thereby hiding from the cytotoxic T cell.
  4. The cytotoxic T cell will produce proteins that cause the host body cell to die.
  5. The cytotoxic body cell will activate B cells which then produce antibody against the antigen.

 

 

  1. Fluzone is a brand name for a very commonly given influenza vaccine. The vaccine is prepared by first harvesting flu viruses in chicken embryos and then breaking apart virus particles into protein subunits, thereby inactivating the virus. Your friend refuses to get the vaccine. Which of these statements is the only valid reason for her not to get the flu vaccine?
  2. She could catch the flu from the inactivated vaccine.
  3. She could pass the virus onto her baby, causing the child to become autistic.
  4. She could die from the vaccine.
  5. She is allergic to eggs.

 

 

 

  1. You do not really want to get your 3 children vaccinated. Your view is why do it, when others around you will get the vaccine and end up protecting you and your children. Which is an accurate statement that your physician may provide to you in response to your challenge to vaccination?
  2. Your choice is fine, your children will never become infected since this is actually the basis of herd immunity.
  3. This is not a smart choice. If enough people choose not to get vaccinated, the susceptible population grows to a large size breaking the protective effect of herd immunity.
  4. Your choice is fine, maybe you will change your mind when your child goes to college.
  5. This is not a smart choice. You could face potential arrest for not vaccinating your child per the regulations of the US government.

 

 

  1. You have received the first hepatitis A vaccine. It was required for your mission trip to Nicaragua in Central America, where hepatitis A is common. However, you never went back for the booster shot of the vaccine, which should have been received within 6 months of the initial vaccination.  What statement accurately reflects your present immunity to this pathogen?
  2. This is not a problem because the second dosage is just extra protection. Your immune status would be very high.
  3. The one dosage is not enough because it only activated humoral immunity. The second dosage is to then activate cell-mediated immunity. The combination of the two immune responses gives you 100% coverage of immunity to hepatitis A.
  4. Not a problem because at any timein a year, 5 years, etc.you can go get the booster vaccine for hepatitis A and be fully covered by immunity.
  5. You are at risk to get hepatitis A since your immune status is only partial. Not enough immune memory cells were produced since you received one dosage of vaccine, so you are likely to get the disease when exposed to the virus.

 

 

  1. A patient enters your clinic with a suspected helminthic infection. In support of this diagnosis, you suspect elevated levels of which antibody in the patients serum?
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
  5. IgM

 

 

 

 

  1. As an adult who never developed chickenpox infection as a child, you elect to receive the protective vaccine against this pathogen at the age of 35. This vaccine will stimulate:
  2. a primary immune response
  3. latency
  4. a secondary immune response
  5. an anamnestic response

 

 

 

 

  1. Autoimmune disorders are characterized by immune destruction of self tissues. The underlying basis of these disorders is:
  2. oversecretion of antibodies from memory B cells
  3. lack of immune tolerance
  4. lack of an anamnestic response
  5. overproduction of complement

 

 

 

 

Chapter 25

Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. The study of the practical use of microbes in various industries and technologies is
  2. applied microbiology.
  3. biotechnology.
  4. bioengineering.
  5. microbial ecology.
  6. industrial microbiology.

 

 

  1. The mass, controlled culture of microbes to produce desired organic compounds is
  2. biotechnology.
  3. fermentation.
  4. biosynthesis.
  5. biodegradation.
  6. bioremediation.

 

 

  1. Which is the first step in water purification?
  2. chlorination
  3. aeration and settling
  4. sedimentation
  5. storage
  6. filtration

 

 

  1. In which step of water purification does water move through sand beds and activated charcoal?
  2. chlorination
  3. aeration and settling
  4. sedimentation
  5. storage
  6. filtration

 

 

  1. Primary sewage treatment includes
  2. sludge digesting.
  3. skimming.
  4. filtration.
  5. chlorination.
  6. aeration.

 

 

 

 

  1. The final treatment of sewage before release into the environment is
  2. sludge digesting.
  3. skimming.
  4. filtration.
  5. chlorination.
  6. aeration.

 

 

 

  1. What chemical is used in both water purification and sewage treatment to give long-term disinfection?
  2. fluorine
  3. activated charcoal
  4. copper sulfate
  5. chlorine

 

 

  1. A pure or mixed sample of known microbes added to food is a/an
  2. leavening.
  3. fermenter.
  4. starter culture.
  5. flavor inducer.
  6. aerator.

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a desired outcome from using microbes in bread-making?
  2. leavening
  3. giving flavor and odor
  4. producing ethyl alcohol
  5. conditioning the dough to make it workable
  6. helping the dough rise

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a gas-forming microbe used to make bread?
  2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  3. Clostridium perfringens
  4. Coliform bacteria
  5. Heterofermentative lactic acid bacteria
  6. Streptococcus lactis

 

 

 

  1. The products of yeast fermentation in breads are
  2. ethanol and water.
  3. ethanol and carbon dioxide.
  4. carbon dioxide and water.
  5. lactic acid and water.
  6. lactic acid and carbon dioxide.

 

 

  1. The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is
  2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
  3. Leuconostoc mesenteroides.
  4. Streptococcus lactis.
  5. Propionibacterium.
  6. Spirulina.

 

 

  1. Which step in making beer involves sprouting and softening the barley to release amylases to act on starch and proteases to digest protein?
  2. preparing a mash
  3. malting
  4. aging
  5. wort boiled with hops
  6. fermentation

 

 

  1. Which step in making beer involves soaking malt grain, grinding it, and heating with sugar and starch?
  2. preparing a mash
  3. malting
  4. aging
  5. wort boiled with hops
  6. fermentation

 

 

  1. Which step in making beer involves inoculating the wort with a species of Saccharomyces?
  2. preparing a mash
  3. malting
  4. aging
  5. wort boiled with hops
  6. fermentation

 

 

  1. Which step in wine making involves the crushing of the fruit?
  2. aging
  3. fermentation
  4. preparation of must
  5. storage
  6. malting

 

 

  1. The source of wild yeasts carried in a biofilm on grapes is the
  2. must.
  3. malt.
  4. wort.
  5. bloom.
  6. lager.

 

  1. Which organism is used to initiate the fermentation of cabbage to make sauerkraut?
  2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  3. Leuconostoc mesenteroides
  4. Streptococcus lactis
  5. Propionibacterium
  6. Spirulina

 

 

  1. Which organisms are used to make salt pickles?
  2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Leuconostoc mesenteroides
  3. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
  4. Pediococcus cerevisiae and Lactobacillus plantarum
  5. Propionibacterium and Spirulina
  6. Leuconostoc mesenteroides and Spirulina

 

 

  1. The first stage in making vinegar involves fermentation by
  2. Gluconobacter.
  3. Saccharomyces.
  4. Acetobacter.
  5. Propionibacterium.
  6. Spirulina.

 

  1. Which bacteria ferment milk lactose, producing acids that curdle milk?
  2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  3. Leuconostoc mesenteroides
  4. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
  5. Propionibacterium
  6. Spirulina

 

 

 

  1. The organism used to make bleu cheese is
  2. Penicillium roqueforti.
  3. Leuconostoc mesenteroides.
  4. Streptococcus lactis.
  5. Propionibacterium.
  6. Micrococcus.

 

 

  1. What is made by adding Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus to milk?
  2. kefir
  3. cheese
  4. sour cream
  5. tofu
  6. yogurt

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a/are microorganism/s that can be used as food?
  2. Spirulina
  3. Methylophilus methylotrophus
  4. algae
  5. Fusarium graminearum
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

  1. All of the following are food-borne pathogens except
  2. Salmonella.
  3. Campylobacter jejuni.
  4. Lactobacillus acidophilus.
  5. Clostridium perfringens.
  6. Staphylococcus aureus.

 

 

  1. Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes
  2. high temperature and pressure.
  3. pasteurization.
  4. refrigeration and freezing.
  5. irradiation.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

  1. Preventing the incorporation of microbes into food can by achieved by
  2. washing of fruits and vegetables.
  3. aseptic techniques for handling meat, eggs, and milk.
  4. handwashing and proper hygiene in the kitchen.
  5. avoiding cross-contamination of utensils and cutting boards.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

  1. A good range of temperature to store food is
  2. 0 to 50C.
  3. 20 to 80C.
  4. below 10C and above 80C.
  5. below 4C and above 60C.
  6. below 10C and above 100C.

 

 

  1. What type of radiation is best for destroying microbes throughout food?
  2. ultraviolet
  3. visible light
  4. gamma rays
  5. infrared
  6. microwaves

 

 

 

  1. Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food?
  2. antibiotics
  3. organic acids
  4. sulfite
  5. ethylene oxide gas
  6. salt

 

 

  1. Nitrates and nitrites are used in cured meats to prevent
  2. botulism intoxication.
  3. S. aureus food poisoning.
  4. mold growth.
  5. infection from fruits and nuts.

 

 

  1. Bacteriophages sprayed on cold-cuts are effective against
  2. Mycobacterium.
  3. S. aureus.
  4. Listeria.
  5. Clostridium.
  6. coliforms.

 

  1. Industrial microbiology is used in the production of
  2. antibiotics.
  3. hormones.
  4. vitamins.
  5. vaccines.
  6. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not true of industrial microbiology?
  2. Primary metabolites are essential to a microbes function.
  3. Secondary metabolites include vitamins, antibiotics, and steroids.
  4. Growth environment is enhanced to increase metabolite synthesis.
  5. Select microbial strains are not controlled by feedback mechanisms.

 

 

  1. A device in which mass cultures are grown, reactions take place, and product develops is a/n
  2. sparger.
  3. activator.
  4. fermentor.
  5. vat.
  6. incubator.

 

 

  1. Bacillus thuringiensis
  2. causes food poisoning.
  3. produces a biopesticide.
  4. is used in cheese making.
  5. is a microorganism used as food.

 

 

 

  1. Which enzyme is used in medicine as a blood thinner?
  2. streptokinase
  3. protease
  4. catalase
  5. rennet
  6. cellulase

 

  1. Which of the following pathogens does not match its condition?
  2. E. coli diarrhea
  3. Vibrio cholerae cholera
  4. Shigella dysenteriae dysentery
  5. Saccharomyces cerevisiae vomiting
  6. Listeria monocytogenes listeriosis

 

 

  1. What is missing from the following equation:

Yeast + _________ 2C2H5OH + 2CO2

  1. C5H12O5
  2. O2
  3. C6H12O6
  4. H2O
  5. CH3CHO

 

 

  1. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point Principle (HACCP) procedures include
  2. determining the microbial load in preprocessed food.
  3. determining adequate separation of waste and ready-to-eat product/s.
  4. sanitary guidelines and sufficient employee training.
  5. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

 

True / False Questions

 

  1. In the secondary phase of water treatment, organic matter undergoes biodegradation by a diverse mix of bacteria, algae, and protozoa.

 

  1. Yeast fermentation in breads is aerobic.

 

  1. Rennin is added to cheese to help preserve it.

 

  1. Most cases of food poisoning occur in the home, not restaurants.

 

  1. A quick warming of chicken or eggs is enough to kill Salmonella.

 

  1. Freezing chicken does not kill Salmonella.
  2. Irradiated food becomes radioactive.

 

  1. Dehydration is an excellent microbicidal method.

 

  1. In batch fermentation, substrate is added continuously and the product is siphoned off throughout the run.

 

 

  1. Secondary metabolites are essential molecules needed by the microorganism.

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

  1. Place the steps of the water purification process in order.
  2. filtration and settling, chemical disinfection, aeration, release into a water reservoir
  3. aeration, filtration and settling, chemical disinfection, release into a water reservoir
  4. chemical disinfection, aeration, filtration and settling, release into a water reservoir
  5. release into a water reservoir, aeration, filtration and settling, chemical disinfection

 

 

 

  1. The difference between water purification and sewage treatment is:
  2. the types of microorganisms used for the treatment.
  3. the amount of air pumped into the water for treatment.
  4. whether the water comes out of peoples house or not.
  5. there is microbial degradation in sewage treatment, but not at all in water purification.

 

 

  1. Sewage treatment processes result in the production of _________, which can then be used to make electricity.
  2. carbohydrates
  3. hydrogen gas
  4. methane
  5. nitrates

 

 

  1. Potable water must be:
  2. absolutely clear.
  3. free of pathogens.
  4. totally free of microorganisms.
  5. free of all elements.

 

 

 

  1. Indicator bacteria for contaminated water are:
  2. coliforms.
  3. Clostridia.
  4. Staphylococci.
  5. all bacteria, since there should be no bacteria at all in treated water.

 

 

 

  1. Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests that help establish an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called:
  2. membrane filter method.
  3. most probable number (MPN).
  4. standard plate count.
  5. PCR.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not true of coliforms?
  2. gram-negative, lactose-fermenting, and gas-producing
  3. include E. coli, Enterobacter, and Citrobacter
  4. Coliform counts are not specific for a particular species of bacteria.
  5. All coliforms come from feces, so finding any of them in water indicates fecal contamination.

 

 

  1. The most prominent water-borne pathogens of recent times include all except:
  2. Staphylococcus
  3. Cryptosporidium.
  4. Norwalk viruses.
  5. Salmonella.

 

 

  1. The basis of the membrane filter technique is:
  2. the various dilutions of the water sample allow a total bacterial count when plated out using pour or spread plates.
  3. the membrane has an antibiotic which kills bacteria in the water sample.
  4. bacteria are small enough to go right through the filter.
  5. bacteria are larger than the holes in the filter.

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true?
  2. Microorganisms can be a food source.
  3. Microbial metabolism can alter a food to improve its flavor.
  4. Not all microorganisms in food cause foodborne disease.
  5. All statements are true.

 

 

  1. Picking a nice sirloin roast, you ask the meat manager to grind it up into ground beef, to be used for hamburger meat. Since your husband likes his hamburgers rare, you undercooked the meat just as he likes it.  Unfortunately, within 2 days he develops the signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal diseasediarrhea, bloating, and vomiting.  Which of the following statements best describes what might have happened?
  2. The meat grinder was not cleaned well with disinfectant. When the sirloin was ground up with the grinder, bacteria were transferred to the meat and thoroughly distributed throughout the meat.
  3. The sirloin was already contaminated when it was in the whole animal, probably due to the animal being sick.
  4. The hamburger meat became contaminated by bacteria that were in other foods in your refrigerator.
  5. The meat became contaminated by bacteria on the barbeque grill, coating both sides of the hamburger patties.

 

 

  1. Which statement is true regarding pasteurization?
  2. It does not kill all microorganisms in milk.
  3. The process was first used in the wine industry.
  4. During pasteurization the heating is done very quickly as to not change the integrity and taste of the product.
  5. All statements are true.

 

 

  1. You have to determine what method is best to prevent the growth of microorganisms in your companys foodham roasts. This method should be efficient, have a high kill rate, not change the food integri

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