Medical Microbiology 6th edition by Murray Patrick R. Rosenthal Test bank

<< Medical Surgical Nursing An Integrated Approach 3rd Edition by Lois White -Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing Concepts & Practice, 2nd Edition by Susan C. Test Bank >>
Product Code: 222
Availability: In Stock
Price: $24.99
Qty:     - OR -   Add to Wish List
Add to Compare

Medical Microbiology 6th edition by Murray Patrick R. Rosenthal Test bank

Description

WITH ANSWERS
Medical Microbiology 6th edition by Murray Patrick R. Rosenthal Test bank

Murray: Medical Microbiology, 6th Edition

 

Chapter 02: Bacterial Classification, Structure, and Replication

 

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Teichoic acids, mycolic acids, peptidoglycan, and disaccharide-pentapeptide subunits are all building blocks of which bacterial structure?
a. Outer cell membrane
b. Flagella
c. Inner cell membrane
d. Cell wall

 

ANS: D

 

  1. What is the major difference between the cell walls of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria?
a. The peptidoglycan layer in gram-positive bacteria is substantially thicker.
b. The cell wall of gram-positive bacteria contains mycolic acids.
c. Gram-positive bacteria contain a cytoplasmic membrane.
d. Gram-positive bacteria may have a polysaccharide capsule as a covering.
e. Gram-negative bacterial membranes contain ergosterol

 

ANS: A

 

  1. Which of the following distinguishes a bacterium from a eukaryote?
  2. Translation of the mRNA by the ribosome
  3. Phospholipid bilayer structure of the membranes
  4. ATP production from membrane potential at plasma membrane
  5. Semiconservative replication of chromosome
  6. Sensitivity to folate analogue antimetabolites

 

ANS: C

 

  1. Which reason explains why gram-positive bacteria are stain positive?
a. Bacteria reduce the stain to produce the characteristic color.
b. Cell wall traps the stain.
c. Acetone treatment precipitates intracellular stain.
d. Heat fixing uncovers stainable proteins.
e. Outer membrane absorbs the stain.

 

ANS: B

 

  1. Which of the following does not occur in eukaryotes?
a. Start of protein synthesis with AUG codon
b. Coupling of ATP production to membrane potential
c. Coupling of transcription and translation
d. Movement by flagella
e. Transformation of cells with foreign DNA

 

ANS: C

 

  1. Which of the following is not synthesized by prokaryotes?
a. C55 isoprenoid phosphate
b. Cardiolipin
c. Cholesterol
d. F1 ATPase
e. Phosphatidylcholine

 

ANS: C

 

  1. Which of the following is present in gram-positive bacteria but not in gram-negative bacteria?
a. d-Ala d-Ala carboxypeptidase
b. F1 ATPase
c. Flagellin
d. Lipoteichoic acid
e. Lysozyme

 

ANS: D

 

  1. Why are gram-negative bacteria insensitive to lysozyme?
a. Lysozyme does not traverse porins.
b. The O antigen is an inhibitor of the enzyme.
c. The d-Ala d-Ala transpeptidase is insensitive to lysozyme.
d. The target structure regenerates quickly.
e. They lack a peptidoglycan.

 

ANS: A

 

  1. After growth of E. coli obtained from a urinary tract infection in the laboratory, the bacteria became attenuated for urinary tract infections. Mutation in a gene for which of the following would cause the attenuation?
a. Flagellin
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Lipoteichoic acid
d. M protein
e. Pilin

ANS: E

  1. Between which structures does lysozyme cleave?
a. Terminal d-Ala d-Ala residues
b. Glycine connecting bridge and the lysine in the third peptide position
c. Lipid A and the core polysaccharide
d. N-acetylglucosamine and the N-acetylmuramic acid
e. Terminal d-Ala d-Ala and the lysine in the third position

 

ANS: D

 

  1. What alteration in the structure of lipopolysaccharide results from bacitracin inhibition of bactoprenol?
a. Inhibition of lipid A synthesis
b. Lack of O antigen
c. Localization of LPS at adhesion sites
d. Longer core polysaccharide
e. Shorter core polysaccharide

 

ANS: B

 

  1. Growing E. coli bacteria transferred from rich medium to a buffer containing no nutrients will:
    1. Lyse
    2. Activate fMet-initiated protein synthesis
    3. Trigger initiation of sporulation
    4. Continue DNA replication
    5. Convert from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism

 

ANS: D

 

Murray: Medical Microbiology, 6th Edition

 

Chapter 18: Mechanisms of Bacterial Pathogenesis 

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. What is the persistent survival of microorganisms on a surface of the human body called?
a. Infection
b. Colonization
c. Nosocomial infection
d. A reservoir

 

ANS: B

 

  1. A 57-year-old man with an indwelling catheter presents with fever. Gram-positive, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative cocci are isolated from the blood. Which of the following is causing the symptoms of the infection?
a. Endotoxin
b. Exotoxin
c. Immunopathogenesis
d. Induction of autoimmune responses
e. Colonization

 

ANS: E

 

  1. Which of the following describes the function of the diphtheria toxin?
a. The A subunit acts as a superantigen.
b. The A subunit activates adenylate cyclase.
c. The A subunit inhibits protein synthesis.
d. The B subunit blocks function of G proteins.
e. The B subunit inhibits the release of neurotransmitters.

 

ANS: C

 

  1. Growth of S. pneumoniae in the laboratory resulted in the development of a rough mutant strain that was attenuated for meningitis. A change in which of the following is most likely to result in this outcome?
a. Capsule
b. Lipoteichoic acid
c. M protein
d. Optochin
e. Streptolysin O

 

 

ANS: A

  1. Loss of which of the following virulence factors through mutation would be most likely to reduce the ability of pneumococcus to cause meningitis?
a. Capsule
b. Flagella
c. Lipase
d. Lipopolysaccharide
e. Streptolysin O

 

ANS: A

 

  1. Cerebrospinal fluid from a 5-year-old boy with meningitis contains a gram-negative coccobacillus that is oxidase negative and requires X and V factors for growth. Tests indicated that the bacteria were sensitive to a third-generation cephalosporin. Paradoxically, antimicrobial treatment caused an increase in fever and disease signs, but the boy recovered. Which of the following is the best explanation for this?
a. Bacterial fragments activated acute-phase responses.
b. Bacteria acquired resistance and spread through the host.
c. Cephalosporins are pyrogens.
d. Dead bacteria clogged the CSF.
e. Third-generation cephalosporins are unable to penetrate into the bacteria.

 

ANS: A

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

Capsule

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: E

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

Cholera toxin

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: A

 

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: A

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

Fimbriae

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: C

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

Lipase

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: D

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

Lipopolysaccharide

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: B

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

Lipoteichoic acid

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: C

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

M protein

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: C

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

Shiga toxin

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: D

 

  1. Match the virulence factors with the appropriate consequences.

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

 

a. Activation of adenylate cyclase
b. Activation of cytokine production
c. Attachment
d. Invasion
e. Phagocytic escape

 

ANS: B

 

 

Murray: Medical Microbiology, 6th Edition

 

Chapter 36: Francisella and Brucella

 

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations, is caused by which bacterium?
a. Brucella
b. Bordetella
c. Pasteurella
d. Francisella

 

ANS: D

 

  1. A butcher with a granuloma on his hand presents with chills, sweats, and fatigue over the past 6 weeks. He reports a 20-pound weight loss and a fever that comes and goes in an undulating pattern. Which of the following infections is most likely?
a. Brucella abortus
b. Chlamydia psittaci
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Plasmodium falciparum
e. Streptococcus pyogenes

 

ANS: A

 

  1. A rabbit breeder has a large, ulcerative skin lesion on the back of his hand, lymphadenopathy, and fever, chills, and malaise. Tularemia is suspected. Which of the following virulence mechanisms is a distinguishing characteristic of the infecting microbe?
a. A-B toxin production
b. -Lactamase production
c. Intracellular growth
d. Release of lipo-oligosaccharide
e. Wax layer protection

 

ANS: C

 

  1. Which of the following risk factors is associated with Brucella infection?
a. Aerosols from air-conditioner towers
b. Raw chicken
c. Snails
d. Undercooked hamburger
e. Unpasteurized milk

 

 

ANS: E

 

Murray: Medical Microbiology, 6th Edition

 

Chapter 54: Poxviruses

 

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A 5-year-old child has a patch of wartlike skin lesions that are pearl-like raised nodules that exude a caseous plug upon squeezing. They are suspected to be molluscum contagiosum. Which of the following describes the virus causing this infection?
a. Circular dsDNA virus that replicates in the nucleus
b. Linear dsDNA virus that replicates in the cytoplasm
c. Linear dsDNA virus that replicates in the nucleus
d. Linear (+)ssRNA virus that replicates in the cytoplasm
e. Linear (+)ssRNA virus that replicates in the nucleus

 

ANS: B

 

  1. Why was routine immunization with vaccinia virus discontinued?
a. The price of the vaccine was too high.
b. The risk of disease outweighed the benefits.
c. The vaccine reverted to wild-type virulence.
d. The endemic virus shifted serotype, and the vaccine was no longer effective.
e. Vaccinia virus has been successfully controlled.

 

ANS: B

 

 

Murray: Medical Microbiology, 6th Edition

 

Chapter 82: Blood and Tissue Protozoa

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A 65-year-old missionary is seen on an emergency basis in November complaining of fever and chills which recur every 48 hours. Which of the following details from the patient history would be most helpful in making the diagnosis?
a. Failed to get annual influenza immunization
b. Family member with runny nose and fever
c. Recent meal from a street vendor
d. Recent return from mission in Liberia
e. Undergoing therapy for prostate cancer

 

ANS: D

 

Write a review

Your Name:


Your Review: Note: HTML is not translated!

Rating: Bad           Good

Enter the code in the box below:



 

Once the order is placed, the order will be delivered to your email less than 24 hours, mostly within 4 hours. 

If you have questions, you can contact us here