Microbiology An Introduction 10Th Edition byTortora-Funke Test Bank

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Microbiology An Introduction 10Th Edition byTortora-Funke Test Bank

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Microbiology An Introduction 10Th Edition byTortora-Funke Test Bank

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope 35S.
After a 48-hour incubation, the 35S would most likely be found in the S. cerevisiaes
1)
A) Carbohydrates.
B) Nucleic acids.
C) Proteins.
D) Lipids.
E) Water.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2) An E. coli culture that has been growing at 37C is moved to 25C. Which of the following changes
must be made in its plasma membrane?
2)
A) The number of unsaturated chains must increase.
B) The number of phosphate groups must increase.
C) The number of saturated chains must increase.
D) The viscosity must increase.
E) No changes are necessary.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3) The antimicrobial drug imidazole inhibits sterol synthesis. This would most likely interfere with 3)
A) Prokaryotic plasma membranes.
B) Genes.
C) Fungal cell walls.
D) Bacterial cell walls.
E) Eukaryotic plasma membranes.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
1
Figure 2.2
4) Use Figure 2.2 to answer the following question. Archaea differ from bacteria in the composition of
the cell membrane lipids. Archaea have ether-bonded lipids, shown in part ________ of Figure 2.2,
and bacteria have ester-bonded lipids, shown in part ________ of Figure 2.2.
4)
A) b; c B) b; a C) d; c D) c; d E) a; d
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5) What is the type of bond holding hydrogen and oxygen atoms in the H2O molecule? 5)
A) Ionic bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Covalent bond
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
2
6) Which type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol? 6)
A) Protein B) Carbohydrate C) Nucleic acid D) Lipid
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
7) Structurally, ATP is most like which type of molecule? 7)
A) Protein B) Carbohydrate C) Nucleic acid D) Lipid
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
8) What is the type of bond between the hydrogen of one molecule and the nitrogen of another
molecule?
8)
A) Ionic bond
B) Hydrophobic bond
C) Covalent bond
D) Hydrogen bond
E) Disulfide bond
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9) Which type of molecule is composed of (CH2O) units? 9)
A) Carbohydrate B) Nucleic acid C) Lipid D) Protein
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
3
Figure 2.1
10) In Figure 2.1, which is an alcohol? 10)
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11) Identify the following reaction: H2O + CO2 H2CO3 11)
A) Reversible reaction
B) Exchange reaction
C) Covalent reaction
D) Dehydration synthesis reaction
E) Hydrolysis reaction
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12) Antacids neutralize acid by the following reaction. Identify the salt.
Mg(OH)2 + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2O
12)
A) MgCl2
B) HCl
C) Mg(OH)2
D) H2O
E) None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4
13) Identify the following reaction: Sucrose + H2O Glucose + Fructose 13)
A) Exchange reaction
B) Covalent reaction
C) Hydrolysis reaction
D) Dehydration synthesis reaction
E) Reversible reaction
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14) The following chemical reaction is used to remove chlorine from water. What type of reaction is it?
HClO + Na2SO3 Na2SO4 + HCl
14)
A) Ionic synthesis reaction
B) Dehydration synthesis reaction
C) Hydrolysis synthesis reaction
D) Exchange synthesis reaction
E) Reversible synthesis reaction
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
15) Which type of molecule NEVER contains a phosphate group? 15)
A) Nucleic acid B) Protein C) Carbohydrate D) Lipid
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
16) Identify the following reaction: Glucose + Fructose Sucrose + Water 16)
A) Reversible reaction
B) Hydrolysis reaction
C) Exchange reaction
D) Dehydration synthesis reaction
E) Ionic reaction
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5
17) Which of the following statements about the atom 16
8
O is false? 17)
A) Its atomic weight is 16.
B) It has 8 protons in its nucleus.
C) It has 8 electrons in its nucleus.
D) Its atomic number is 8.
E) It has 8 neutrons in its nucleus.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Table 2.1
16
8
O 12
6
C 11
H
18) Using the information in Table 2.1, calculate the molecular weight of ethanol, C2H5OH. 18)
A) 34 B) 96 C) 33 D) 46 E) Cant tell
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19) What do genes consist of? 19)
A) Nucleic acids B) Carbohydrates C) Lipids D) Proteins
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
6
Figure 2.1
20) Which compound in Figure 2.1 is an organic acid? 20)
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21) Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids? 21)
A) Carbohydrate B) Lipid C) Nucleic acid D) Protein
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
22) Identify the following reaction: HCl + NaHCO3 NaCl + H2CO3 22)
A) Ionic reaction
B) Hydrolysis reaction
C) Exchange reaction
D) Reversible reaction
E) Dehydration synthesis reaction
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7
23) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 23)
A) KH2PO4 K+ + H2PO4- acid
B) H2SO4 2H+ + SO42- acid
C) HF H+ + F- acid
D) MgSO4 Mg2+ + SO42- salt
E) NaOH Na+ + OH- base
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24) Desulfovibrio bacteria can perform the following reaction: S6- S2-. These bacteria are 24)
A) Oxidizing sulfur. B) Hydrolyzing sulfur.
C) Reducing sulfur. D) Synthesizing sulfur.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
25) Which of the following is the type of bond between molecules of water in a beaker of water? 25)
A) Covalent bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Ionic bond
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
26) Identify the following reaction: Glycine + Lysine Dipeptide + H2O 26)
A) Covalent reaction
B) Exchange reaction
C) Reversible reaction
D) Dehydration synthesis reaction
E) Hydrolysis reaction
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8
27) Two glucose molecules are combined to make a maltose molecule. What is the chemical formula
for maltose?
27)
A) C6H12O6
B) C3H6O3
C) C12H23O10
D) C12H24O12
E) C12H22O11
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Figure 2.1
28) Which compound in Figure 2.1 is an ester? 28)
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29) Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope 32P.
After a 48-hour incubation, the 32P would most likely be found in the S. cerevisiaes
29)
A) Cell wall.
B) Plasma membrane.
C) Water.
D) Proteins.
E) Carbohydrates.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9
Figure 2.4
30) What kind of bond is at the arrow in Figure 2.4? 30)
A) Disulfide bridge
B) Ionic bond
C) Hydrogen bond
D) Double covalent bond
E) Peptide bond
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
31) What is the type of bond between ions in salt? 31)
A) Hydrogen bond B) Ionic bond C) Covalent bond
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
32) Identify the following reaction: Lactose + H2O Glucose + Galactose 32)
A) Dehydration synthesis reaction
B) Ionic reaction
C) Hydrolysis reaction
D) Reversible reaction
E) Exchange reaction
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10
33) What is the type of bond between carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms in organic molecules? 33)
A) Hydrogen bond B) Ionic bond C) Covalent bond
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
34) Identify the following reaction: NH4OH NH3 + H2O 34)
A) Ionic reaction
B) Reversible reaction
C) Exchange reaction
D) Dehydration synthesis reaction
E) Hydrolysis reaction
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
35) Which of the following statements about the atom 12
6
C is false? 35)
A) It has 6 protons in its nucleus.
B) Its atomic weight is 12.
C) It has 12 neutrons in its nucleus.
D) It has 6 electrons orbiting the nucleus.
E) Its atomic number is 6.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11
Figure 2.3
36) What kind of bond is at the arrow in Figure 2.3? 36)
A) Double covalent bond
B) Ionic bond
C) Single covalent bond
D) Hydrogen bond
E) Peptide bond
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Table 2.1
16
8
O 12
6
C 11
H
37) Using the information in Table 2.1, calculate the number of moles in 92 grams of ethanol, C2H5OH. 37)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) Cant tell
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
38) Which of the following is the type of bond holding K+ and I- ions in KI? 38)
A) Covalent bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Ionic bond
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
12
39) Which type of molecule contains -NH2 groups? 39)
A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Nucleic acid D) Lipid
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
40) Oil-degrading bacteria are naturally present in the environment but cannot degrade an oil spill fast
enough to avoid ecological damage. How can the actions of these bacteria be sped up?
40)
A) Add water.
B) Add NaCl.
C) Provide oil for them.
D) Provide nitrogen and phosphorus.
E) Provide sugar as a carbon source.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Table 2.2
Refer to these reactions to answer the question below.
NaOH Na+ + OH- base
HF H+ + F- acid
MgSO4 Mg2+ + SO42- salt
KH2PO4 K+ H2PO4- acid
H2SO4 2H+ + SO42- salt
41) Which of the following statements about the reactions in Table 2.2 is false? 41)
A) They are ionization reactions.
B) They are dissociation reactions.
C) They occur when the reactants are dissolved in water.
D) They are exchange reactions.
E) They are reversible reactions.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13
42) Which of the following is a base? 42)
A) H2CO
B) NaOH Na+ + OHC)
H2O H+ + OHD)
C2H5OCOOH H+ + C2H5OCOOE)
C2H5OH
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
43) Which of the following statements is false? 43)
A) Salts readily dissolve in water.
B) Water is a part of a dehydration reaction.
C) Water is a polar molecule.
D) Water molecules are formed by hydrolysis.
E) Water freezes from the top down.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
44) Which are the primary molecules making up plasma membranes in cells? 44)
A) Lipids B) Proteins C) Nucleic acids D) Carbohydrates
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
45) Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of 45)
A) Nucleic acids.
B) Glucose.
C) Acids.
D) Fatty acids.
E) Amino acids.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
46) Describe how the properties of phospholipids make these molecules well suited for plasma membranes.
Answer:
14
Figure 2.5
47) Use Figure 2.5 to answer the following question. Starch, cellulose, dextran, and glycogen are polysaccharides.
How are they similar? To what are their different properties due? Why cant an enzyme that hydrolyzes starch
degrade cellulose?
Answer:
15
Answer Key
Testname: C2
1) C
2) A
3) E
4) B
5) C
6) D
7) C
8) D
9) A
10) C
11) B
12) A
13) C
14) D
15) C
16) D
17) C
18) D
19) A
20) A
21) D
22) C
23) A
24) A
25) B
26) A
27) E
28) D
29) B
30) E
31) B
32) C
33) C
34) B
35) C
36) D
37) B
38) C
39) B
40) D
41) D
42) B
43) D
44) A
45) B
46)
47)
16

 

chapter 16

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? 1)
A) Lymphocyte
B) Neutrophil
C) Basophil
D) Monocyte
E) Eosinophil
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2) Margination refers to 2)
A) Dilation of blood vessels.
B) Adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
C) The chemotactic response of phagocytes.
D) The movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.
E) The adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3) Activation of C5C9 results in 3)
A) Phagocytosis.
B) Inflammation.
C) Activation of C3.
D) Fixation of complement.
E) Leakage of cell contents.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
1
4) Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to 4)
A) Produce toxic oxygen products.
B) Migrate.
C) Move by chemotaxis.
D) Live.
E) None of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5) Which of the following is NOT a result of complement fixation? 5)
A) Activation of C3b
B) Immune adherence
C) Acute local inflammation
D) Cell lysis
E) Opsonization
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6) The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid 6)
A) Is excreted in urine.
B) Is lost as perspiration.
C) Returns to the blood.
D) Goes into lymph capillaries.
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7) Bacterial enzymes such as catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from 7)
A) Phagocytic digestion.
B) Complement.
C) Gamma interferon.
D) Histamine.
E) Phagocytosis.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2
8) Which of the following is an effect of opsonization? 8)
A) Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
B) Inflammation
C) Cytolysis
D) Increased diapedesis of phagocytes
E) Increased margination of phagocytes
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9) Which of the following statements is true? 9)
A) Complement activity is antigen specific.
B) Complement increases after immunization.
C) All of the complement proteins are always active in serum.
D) There are at least 30 complement proteins.
E) Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10) Which of the following is found normally in serum? 10)
A) Interferon
B) TLRs
C) Histamine
D) Leukocytosis-promoting factor
E) Complement
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11) Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? 11)
A) Natural killer cell
B) Eosinophil
C) Dendritic cell
D) Neutrophil
E) Basophil
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3
12) Macrophages arise from which of the following? 12)
A) Monocyte
B) Lymphocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Neutrophil
E) Basophil
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13) Which of the following is NOT a way in which normal microbiota provide protection from
infection?
13)
A) They make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria.
B) They change the pH of the environment.
C) They produce lysozyme.
D) They provide antibacterial chemicals.
E) They outcompete newcomers.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14) After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT 14)
A) H2O2.
B) OH.
C) HOCl.
D) Complement.
E) O2-.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4
15) Which of the following is NOT a function of inflammation? 15)
A) To remove an injurious agent
B) To produce antibodies
C) To repair damaged tissue
D) To destroy an injurious agent
E) To wall off an injurious agent
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16) Which of the following is NOT used by phagocytes to adhere to a microorganism? 16)
A) Lysozyme
B) Chemotaxis
C) Opsonization
D) Complement
E) Trapping a bacterium against a rough surface
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17) The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and
lectin pathway beginning with the activation of
17)
A) C1. B) C2. C) C3. D) C5. E) C6.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18) The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by 18)
A) Factors released from phagocytes.
B) Factors released from damaged tissues.
C) Polysaccharides and C3b.
D) Antigenantibody reactions.
E) C5C9.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5
19) A C-reactive protein (CRP) test was ordered for a patient who recently underwent surgery. The
results revealed CRP levels 10 times greater than normal. This indicates
19)
A) Abnormally high blood protein.
B) Internal bleeding.
C) Inflammation.
D) A normal response to the trauma of surgery.
E) None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
20) Which of the following is NOT part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons? 20)
A) They inactivate viruses.
B) They bind to the surface of uninfected cells.
C) They work in cells not producing INF.
D) They initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins.
E) They initiate transcription.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21) The function of the ciliary escalator is to 21)
A) Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.
B) Kill microorganisms.
C) Remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract.
D) Remove microorganisms from body cavities.
E) All of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22) Chill is a sign that 22)
A) Body temperature is falling.
B) Body temperature will remain the same.
C) Sweating will follow.
D) Body temperature is rising.
E) None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6
23) Serum is obtained from blood by 23)
A) Coagulating whole blood.
B) Centrifuging whole blood.
C) Lysing red blood cells.
D) Lysing white blood cells.
E) All of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24) Which of the following is NOT an effect of complement activation? 24)
A) Increased blood vessel permeability
B) Increased phagocytic activity
C) Interference with viral replication
D) Bacterial cell lysis
E) Opsonization
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
25) Bacteria have siderophores that capture iron; humans counter this by 25)
A) Iron-degrading enzymes.
B) Toxin production.
C) Producing iron.
D) Interferon.
E) Transferrins.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
26) Which of the following CANNOT be determined from a differential count? 26)
A) The numbers of each type of white blood cell
B) The number of white blood cells
C) The possibility of a state of disease
D) The number of red blood cells
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7
27) Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity? 27)
A) Eosinophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
E) Erythrocytes
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
28) Innate immunity is 28)
A) The bodys defense against a particular pathogen.
B) The lack of resistance.
C) The bodys ability to ward off diseases.
D) Increased susceptibility to disease.
E) The bodys defenses against any kind of pathogen.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29) Which of the following does NOT provide protection from phagocytic digestion? 29)
A) Killing white blood cells
B) Preventing formation of phagolysosomes
C) Biofilms
D) Causing formation of phagolysosomes
E) Ability to grow at a low pH
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
30) The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by 30)
A) Factors released from damaged tissues.
B) Factors released from phagocytes.
C) Antigenantibody reactions.
D) C5C9.
E) Polysaccharides and C3b.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8
31) Which of the following is NOT a physical factor protecting the skin and mucous membranes from
infection?
31)
A) Ciliary escalator
B) Lysozyme
C) Tears
D) Saliva
E) Layers of cells
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
32) TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT 32)
A) PAMPs.
B) Peptidoglycan.
C) LPS.
D) AMPs.
E) Flagellin.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
33) Which of the following is NOT an effect of histamine? 33)
A) Pain
B) Vasodilation
C) Fever
D) Redness
E) Swelling
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
34) The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by 34)
A) Lectins of the parasite.
B) Gram-negative cell walls.
C) Gram-positive cell walls.
D) Mannose on the parasite.
E) Mannose on host membranes.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9
35) Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is false? 35)
A) They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system.
B) They develop from neutrophils.
C) They are found in certain tissues and organs.
D) They are mature monocytes.
E) All of the above statements are true.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Figure 16.1
36) In Figure 16.1, what happens next? 36)
A) C2a and C4b activate C3.
B) C5a activates C6.
C) C1 binds C2.
D) C4 activates phagocytes.
E) C2 causes bacterial lyses.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
37) Which of the following does NOT increase blood vessel permeability? 37)
A) Leukotrienes
B) Prostaglandins
C) Histamine
D) Kinins
E) Lysozymes
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10
38) Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is false? 38)
A) C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.
B) C3b causes opsonization.
C) The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigenantibody complexes.
D) Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation.
E) C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
39) All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step? 39)
A) Phagocyte migration
B) Vasodilation
C) Margination
D) Diapedesis
E) Repair
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
40) Which of the following choices shows the order in which white blood cells migrate to infected
tissues?
40)
A) Macrophages monocytes
B) Neutrophils monocytes
C) Lymphocytes macrophages
D) Neutrophils macrophages
E) Macrophages neutrophils
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
41) Which one of the following is NOT an effect of fever? 41)
A) Kills pathogens.
B) Increases production of T cells.
C) Increases alpha interferon activity.
D) Increases transferrin production.
E) Increases interleukin-1.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11
42) Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following
would be the most severe?
42)
A) Deficiency of C3
B) Deficiency of C5
C) Deficiency of C6
D) Deficiency of C7
E) Deficiency of C8
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
43) Activation of C3a results in 43)
A) Increased blood vessel permeability.
B) Fever.
C) Acute inflammation.
D) Attraction of phagocytes.
E) Cell lysis.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
44) Defensive cells such as T cells identify pathogens by binding which of the following? 44)
A) Cytokines
B) Lectins
C) Complement
D) Lysozyme
E) Toll-like receptors
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
45) Which of the following statements is true? 45)
A) Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis.
B) Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses.
C) Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.
D) Alpha interferon is an antiviral protein.
E) Beta interferon attacks invading viruses.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
46) Explain how each of the following avoids being killed by phagocytes.
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Shigella dysenteriae
Answer:
47) A patient consulted a physician for symptoms that included a swollen toe, a red streak along his ankle, and
enlarged lymph nodes in his groin. Explain the cause of these symptoms.
Answer:
13
Answer Key
Testname: C16
1) E
2) B
3) E
4) A
5) C
6) D
7) A
8) A
9) D
10) E
11) A
12) A
13) C
14) D
15) B
16) A
17) C
18) C
19) C
20) A
21) A
22) D
23) A
24) C
25) E
26) D
27) D
28) E
29) D
30) C
31) B
32) D
33) C
34) D
35) B
36) A
37) E
38) A
39) B
40) B
41) A
42) A
43) B
44) E
45) C
46)
47)
14

 

chapter 16

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? 1)
A) Lymphocyte
B) Neutrophil
C) Basophil
D) Monocyte
E) Eosinophil
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2) Margination refers to 2)
A) Dilation of blood vessels.
B) Adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
C) The chemotactic response of phagocytes.
D) The movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.
E) The adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3) Activation of C5C9 results in 3)
A) Phagocytosis.
B) Inflammation.
C) Activation of C3.
D) Fixation of complement.
E) Leakage of cell contents.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
1
4) Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to 4)
A) Produce toxic oxygen products.
B) Migrate.
C) Move by chemotaxis.
D) Live.
E) None of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5) Which of the following is NOT a result of complement fixation? 5)
A) Activation of C3b
B) Immune adherence
C) Acute local inflammation
D) Cell lysis
E) Opsonization
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6) The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid 6)
A) Is excreted in urine.
B) Is lost as perspiration.
C) Returns to the blood.
D) Goes into lymph capillaries.
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7) Bacterial enzymes such as catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from 7)
A) Phagocytic digestion.
B) Complement.
C) Gamma interferon.
D) Histamine.
E) Phagocytosis.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2
8) Which of the following is an effect of opsonization? 8)
A) Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
B) Inflammation
C) Cytolysis
D) Increased diapedesis of phagocytes
E) Increased margination of phagocytes
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9) Which of the following statements is true? 9)
A) Complement activity is antigen specific.
B) Complement increases after immunization.
C) All of the complement proteins are always active in serum.
D) There are at least 30 complement proteins.
E) Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10) Which of the following is found normally in serum? 10)
A) Interferon
B) TLRs
C) Histamine
D) Leukocytosis-promoting factor
E) Complement
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11) Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? 11)
A) Natural killer cell
B) Eosinophil
C) Dendritic cell
D) Neutrophil
E) Basophil
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3
12) Macrophages arise from which of the following? 12)
A) Monocyte
B) Lymphocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Neutrophil
E) Basophil
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13) Which of the following is NOT a way in which normal microbiota provide protection from
infection?
13)
A) They make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria.
B) They change the pH of the environment.
C) They produce lysozyme.
D) They provide antibacterial chemicals.
E) They outcompete newcomers.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14) After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT 14)
A) H2O2.
B) OH.
C) HOCl.
D) Complement.
E) O2-.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4
15) Which of the following is NOT a function of inflammation? 15)
A) To remove an injurious agent
B) To produce antibodies
C) To repair damaged tissue
D) To destroy an injurious agent
E) To wall off an injurious agent
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16) Which of the following is NOT used by phagocytes to adhere to a microorganism? 16)
A) Lysozyme
B) Chemotaxis
C) Opsonization
D) Complement
E) Trapping a bacterium against a rough surface
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17) The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and
lectin pathway beginning with the activation of
17)
A) C1. B) C2. C) C3. D) C5. E) C6.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18) The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by 18)
A) Factors released from phagocytes.
B) Factors released from damaged tissues.
C) Polysaccharides and C3b.
D) Antigenantibody reactions.
E) C5C9.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5
19) A C-reactive protein (CRP) test was ordered for a patient who recently underwent surgery. The
results revealed CRP levels 10 times greater than normal. This indicates
19)
A) Abnormally high blood protein.
B) Internal bleeding.
C) Inflammation.
D) A normal response to the trauma of surgery.
E) None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
20) Which of the following is NOT part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons? 20)
A) They inactivate viruses.
B) They bind to the surface of uninfected cells.
C) They work in cells not producing INF.
D) They initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins.
E) They initiate transcription.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21) The function of the ciliary escalator is to 21)
A) Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.
B) Kill microorganisms.
C) Remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract.
D) Remove microorganisms from body cavities.
E) All of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22) Chill is a sign that 22)
A) Body temperature is falling.
B) Body temperature will remain the same.
C) Sweating will follow.
D) Body temperature is rising.
E) None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6
23) Serum is obtained from blood by 23)
A) Coagulating whole blood.
B) Centrifuging whole blood.
C) Lysing red blood cells.
D) Lysing white blood cells.
E) All of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24) Which of the following is NOT an effect of complement activation? 24)
A) Increased blood vessel permeability
B) Increased phagocytic activity
C) Interference with viral replication
D) Bacterial cell lysis
E) Opsonization
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
25) Bacteria have siderophores that capture iron; humans counter this by 25)
A) Iron-degrading enzymes.
B) Toxin production.
C) Producing iron.
D) Interferon.
E) Transferrins.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
26) Which of the following CANNOT be determined from a differential count? 26)
A) The numbers of each type of white blood cell
B) The number of white blood cells
C) The possibility of a state of disease
D) The number of red blood cells
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7
27) Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity? 27)
A) Eosinophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
E) Erythrocytes
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
28) Innate immunity is 28)
A) The bodys defense against a particular pathogen.
B) The lack of resistance.
C) The bodys ability to ward off diseases.
D) Increased susceptibility to disease.
E) The bodys defenses against any kind of pathogen.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29) Which of the following does NOT provide protection from phagocytic digestion? 29)
A) Killing white blood cells
B) Preventing formation of phagolysosomes
C) Biofilms
D) Causing formation of phagolysosomes
E) Ability to grow at a low pH
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
30) The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by 30)
A) Factors released from damaged tissues.
B) Factors released from phagocytes.
C) Antigenantibody reactions.
D) C5C9.
E) Polysaccharides and C3b.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8
31) Which of the following is NOT a physical factor protecting the skin and mucous membranes from
infection?
31)
A) Ciliary escalator
B) Lysozyme
C) Tears
D) Saliva
E) Layers of cells
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
32) TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT 32)
A) PAMPs.
B) Peptidoglycan.
C) LPS.
D) AMPs.
E) Flagellin.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
33) Which of the following is NOT an effect of histamine? 33)
A) Pain
B) Vasodilation
C) Fever
D) Redness
E) Swelling
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
34) The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by 34)
A) Lectins of the parasite.
B) Gram-negative cell walls.
C) Gram-positive cell walls.
D) Mannose on the parasite.
E) Mannose on host membranes.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9
35) Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is false? 35)
A) They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system.
B) They develop from neutrophils.
C) They are found in certain tissues and organs.
D) They are mature monocytes.
E) All of the above statements are true.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Figure 16.1
36) In Figure 16.1, what happens next? 36)
A) C2a and C4b activate C3.
B) C5a activates C6.
C) C1 binds C2.
D) C4 activates phagocytes.
E) C2 causes bacterial lyses.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
37) Which of the following does NOT increase blood vessel permeability? 37)
A) Leukotrienes
B) Prostaglandins
C) Histamine
D) Kinins
E) Lysozymes
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10
38) Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is false? 38)
A) C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.
B) C3b causes opsonization.
C) The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigenantibody complexes.
D) Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation.
E) C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
39) All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step? 39)
A) Phagocyte migration
B) Vasodilation
C) Margination
D) Diapedesis
E) Repair
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
40) Which of the following choices shows the order in which white blood cells migrate to infected
tissues?
40)
A) Macrophages monocytes
B) Neutrophils monocytes
C) Lymphocytes macrophages
D) Neutrophils macrophages
E) Macrophages neutrophils
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
41) Which one of the following is NOT an effect of fever? 41)
A) Kills pathogens.
B) Increases production of T cells.
C) Increases alpha interferon activity.
D) Increases transferrin production.
E) Increases interleukin-1.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11
42) Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following
would be the most severe?
42)
A) Deficiency of C3
B) Deficiency of C5
C) Deficiency of C6
D) Deficiency of C7
E) Deficiency of C8
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
43) Activation of C3a results in 43)
A) Increased blood vessel permeability.
B) Fever.
C) Acute inflammation.
D) Attraction of phagocytes.
E) Cell lysis.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
44) Defensive cells such as T cells identify pathogens by binding which of the following? 44)
A) Cytokines
B) Lectins
C) Complement
D) Lysozyme
E) Toll-like receptors
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
45) Which of the following statements is true? 45)
A) Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis.
B) Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses.
C) Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.
D) Alpha interferon is an antiviral protein.
E) Beta interferon attacks invading viruses.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
46) Explain how each of the following avoids being killed by phagocytes.
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Shigella dysenteriae
Answer:
47) A patient consulted a physician for symptoms that included a swollen toe, a red streak along his ankle, and
enlarged lymph nodes in his groin. Explain the cause of these symptoms.
Answer:
13
Answer Key
Testname: C16
1) E
2) B
3) E
4) A
5) C
6) D
7) A
8) A
9) D
10) E
11) A
12) A
13) C
14) D
15) B
16) A
17) C
18) C
19) C
20) A
21) A
22) D
23) A
24) C
25) E
26) D
27) D
28) E
29) D
30) C
31) B
32) D
33) C
34) D
35) B
36) A
37) E
38) A
39) B
40) B
41) A
42) A
43) B
44) E
45) C
46)
47)
14

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