Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy Robert W. Bauma 4th Edition Test Bank

<< Microbiology The Human Experience Foster Test bank Microbiology Principles and Explorations 8th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black test bank >>
Product Code: 222
Availability: In Stock
Price: $24.99
Qty:     - OR -   Add to Wish List
Add to Compare

Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy Robert W. Bauma 4th Edition Test Bank

Description

Exam
Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1)

Pleomorphic bacteria

1)

_______

A)

have a slightly curved rod shape.

B)

are roughly spherical.

C)

are flexible.

D)

reproduce by snapping division.

E)

vary in size and shape.

2)

Which of the following bacterial arrangements is the result of snapping division?

2)

_______

A)

sarcinae

B)

tetrads

C)

palisades

D)

strepto-

E)

staphylo-

3)

The arrangement represented in the figure is typical of which of the following genera of bacteria?

3)

_______

A)

Streptococcus

B)

Corynebacterium

C)

Actinomyces

D)

Escherichia

E)

Bacillus

4)

What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after replication?

4)

_______

A)

spindle

B)

cross wall

C)

fimbria

D)

cytoskeleton

E)

cytoplasmic membrane

5)

Endospores

5)

_______

A)

may be produced when nutrients are scarce.

B)

are resistant to everything except radiation.

C)

can last for only about 10 years.

D)

are bacterial reproductive structures.

E)

are produced by bacteria, algae, and fungi.

6)

Bergeys Manual of Systematic Bacteriology contains

6)

_______

A)

genetic sequences of prokaryotes.

B)

treatments for bacterial diseases.

C)

recipes for bacterial growth media.

D)

classification schemes for prokaryotes.

E)

rules for naming new bacterial species.

7)

Which of the following characteristics distinguish the archaea from the bacteria?

7)

_______

A)

cell wall composition

B)

the deoxyribonucleotides in the DNA

C)

cytoplasmic membrane lipids

D)

16S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequences

E)

cell wall composition, cytoplasmic membrane lipids, and 16S rRNA sequences

8)

The archaea known as halophiles

8)

_______

A)

are members of the phylum Euryarchaeota.

B)

are members of the Euryarchaeota and require temperatures above 45C.

C)

are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.

D)

require salt concentrations of 9% or greater to survive.

E)

require temperatures above 45C to survive.

9)

The ________ are the largest known group of archaea.

9)

_______

A)

methanogens

B)

hyperthermophiles

C)

cyanobacteria

D)

thermophiles

E)

halophiles

10)

Which of the following types of microbes might be found in a boiling hot spring?

10)

______

A)

methanogens

B)

phototrophic bacteria

C)

halophiles

D)

actinomycetes

E)

hyperthermophiles

11)

Which of the following groups of bacteria lives in environments similar to those that may have existed on the early Earth?

11)

______

A)

mycoplasmas

B)

proteobacteria

C)

thermophiles

D)

cyanobacteria

E)

deeply branching bacteria

12)

Many cyanobacteria carry out both oxygenic photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation, but oxygen inhibits nitrogen fixation. How do these cyanobacteria manage both processes?

12)

______

A)

They trap the oxygen in special cells called heterocysts.

B)

Nitrogen fixation is sequestered in special cells called heterocysts.

C)

They produce cells called akinetes for photosynthesis.

D)

The processes are seasonal; photosynthesis occurs in summer and nitrogen fixation takes place in winter.

E)

They have special membranous structures like chloroplasts to separate the processes within the cell.

13)

Heterocysts are found in

13)

______

A)

chlamydias.

B)

alphaproteobacteria.

C)

cyanobacteria.

D)

myxobacteria.

E)

mycoplasmas.

14)

Low G + C content Gram-positive bacteria are

14)

______

A)

Mycoplasma.

B)

in the phylum Firmicutes and include Clostridia and Mycoplasma.

C)

in the phylum Actinobacteria.

D)

Clostridia.

E)

in the phylum Firmicutes.

15)

Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with bacteria that form endospores?

15)

______

A)

tetanus

B)

botulism

C)

gangrene

D)

anthrax

E)

toxic shock syndrome

16)

Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because they

16)

______

A)

are low G + C content Gram-positive bacteria.

B)

produce endospores.

C)

have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.

D)

exhibit snapping division.

E)

have no cell walls.

17)

Which of the following bacterial genera produce(s) endospores?

17)

______

A)

Lactobacillus

B)

Bacillus

C)

Clostridium

D)

both Bacillus and Lactobacillus

E)

both Bacillus and Clostridium

18)

Which of the following bacterial genera includes species that protect areas of the body such as the intestinal tract and the vagina from invasion by pathogens?

18)

______

A)

Mycobacterium

B)

Lactobacillus

C)

Corynebacterium

D)

Staphylococcus

E)

Listeria

19)

Which of the following groups of bacteria is named for its resemblance to fungi?

19)

______

A)

Staphylococcus

B)

Lactobacillus

C)

Corynebacterium

D)

Clostridium

E)

Actinomyces

20)

Which of the following bacterial genera is used for the degradation of environmental pollutants?

20)

______

A)

Nocardia

B)

Actinomyces

C)

Rhizobium

D)

Corynebacterium

E)

Streptomyces

21)

Which of the following is NOT associated with bacteria in the genus Streptomyces?

21)

______

A)

nutrient recycling in soil

B)

protection of plants against caterpillars

C)

the musty smell of soil

D)

microbial antagonism

E)

antibiotic production

22)

What feature of mycobacteria is responsible for the unusually slow growth of these bacteria?

22)

______

A)

They lack a cell wall and are extremely fragile.

B)

The mycolic acid in their cell walls requires signification metabolic investment.

C)

Their low tolerance for oxygen retards their growth.

D)

They cannot fully metabolize carbohydrates and must rely on fermentation.

E)

They have limited numbers of ribosomes so protein production is slow.

23)

A large number of Gram-negative human pathogens are members of the

23)

______

A)

deltaproteobacteria.

B)

gammaproteobacteria.

C)

betaproteobacteria.

D)

alphaproteobacteria.

E)

epsilonproteobacteria.

24)

Members of which of the following genera are the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the United States?

24)

______

A)

Rickettsia

B)

Bacteroides

C)

Treponema

D)

Chlamydia

E)

Helicobacter

25)

A microbiologist observes what appears to be a pink-staining long rod within the periplasmic space of a Gram-negative bacillus. What is this structure likely to be?

25)

______

A)

Bdellovibrio

B)

an endospore

C)

Rickettsia

D)

Chlamydia

E)

a heterocyst

26)

Unusual cellular extensions called prosthecae are associated with which of the following groups of proteobacteria?

26)

______

A)

beta

B)

alpha

C)

delta

D)

gamma

E)

epsilon

27)

Which of the following bacterial genera plays an important role in environmental nitrogen cycles?

27)

______

A)

Rhizobium

B)

Azospirillum

C)

Nitrobacter

D)

both Nitrobacter and Rhizobium

E)

Nitrobacter, Rhizobium, and Azospirillum

28)

A field biologist finds what might be a new species of prokaryote in sewage sludge. It is an obligate anaerobe that metabolizes organic acids and requires hydrogen gas. It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall. The new find may be a

28)

______

A)

methanogen.

B)

clostridium.

C)

bacteroides.

D)

mycoplasma.

E)

cyanobacterium.

29)

Classification of bacteria into different phyla is based on comparisons involving which of the following?

29)

______

A)

cell wall composition

B)

protein sequences

C)

DNA sequences

D)

both DNA and protein sequences

E)

DNA and protein sequences, as well as cell wall composition

30)

Which of the following bacteria oxidize ammonia (NH3) to produce nitrate (NO3)?

30)

______

A)

Azospirillum

B)

Rhizobium

C)

Nitrobacter

D)

Cyanobacter

E)

Nocardia

31)

Which of the following statements regarding pseudomonads is FALSE?

31)

______

A)

They include Pseudomonas and Azotobacter.

B)

They cause urinary tract infections.

C)

They often contaminate food products.

D)

They are symbiotic with plants for nitrogen fixation.

E)

They are Gram-negative rods.

32)

Which of the following bacterial genera is useful for sewage treatment?

32)

______

A)

Burkholderia

B)

Thiobacillus

C)

Zoogloea

D)

Nitrosomonas

E)

Neisseria

33)

A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a

33)

______

A)

spirochete.

B)

spirillum.

C)

sarcina.

D)

coccobacillus.

E)

vibrio.

34)

The giant bacterium Epulopiscium reproduces by means of

34)

______

A)

budding.

B)

binary fission.

C)

sexual reproduction.

D)

viviparity.

E)

snapping division.

35)

Which of the following statements regarding mycoplasmas is FALSE?

35)

______

A)

They are the smallest free-living cells.

B)

They stain Gram positive.

C)

They exhibit a fried egg appearance on solid media.

D)

They are pleomorphic.

E)

They are low G + C content bacteria.

36)

The anaerobic Clostridium species are troublesome pathogens largely because of their capacity for

36)

______

A)

endospore production.

B)

rapid reproduction.

C)

high salt tolerance.

D)

biofilm production.

E)

oxygen production.

37)

Prokaryotes of the genus Pyrodictium are

37)

______

A)

thermophiles.

B)

members of the deeply branching bacteria.

C)

halophiles.

D)

endospore formers.

E)

intracellular parasites.

38)

The ________ include the genus Aquifex.

38)

______

A)

archaea

B)

proteobacteria

C)

high G + C Gram-positive bacteria

D)

deeply branching bacteria

E)

clostridia

39)

Gram negative facultative anaerobes that metabolize carbohydrates via glycolysis are members of the

39)

______

A)

deltaproteobacteria.

B)

alphaproteobacteria.

C)

betaproteobacteria.

D)

epsilonproteobacteria.

E)

gammaproteobacteria.

40)

A Gram-positive psychrotrophic rod ________ is a frequent contaminant of milk and meat and an opportunistic pathogen of the immunocompromised.

40)

______

A)

Bacillus thuringiensis

B)

Listeria monocytogenes

C)

Clostridium perfringens

D)

Escherichia coli

E)

Helicobacter pylori

41)

A species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of

41)

______

A)

food poisoning from rice.

B)

tuberculosis.

C)

urinary tract infections.

D)

contaminated milk and meat.

E)

flesh-eating bacterial infections.

42)

The genus Mycobacterium includes species responsible for

42)

______

A)

gastric ulcers.

B)

urinary tract infections.

C)

food poisoning from contaminated dairy products.

D)

tuberculosis.

E)

food poisoning from rice.

43)

Gram-negative nitrogen-fixing bacteria found in association with plant roots are

43)

______

A)

gammaproteobacteria.

B)

betaproteobacteria.

C)

deeply branching bacteria.

D)

cyanobacteria.

E)

alphaproteobacteria.

44)

Members of the genus Chlamydia are

44)

______

A)

Gram-positive bacteria.

B)

endospore-formers.

C)

intracellular parasites.

D)

classified with the deeply branching bacteria.

E)

thermophiles.

45)

Pseudomonas species are occasional causes of

45)

______

A)

flesh-eating bacterial infection.

B)

food poisoning from dairy products.

C)

food poisoning from contaminated meat.

D)

food poisoning from rice.

E)

urinary tract infections.

TRUE/FALSE. Write T if the statement is true and F if the statement is false.

46)

The majority of archaea are extremophiles.

46)

______

47)

When an endospore germinates, it gives rise to two daughter cells called vegetative cells.

47)

______

48)

Members of the Streptomyces are environmentally important because they can degrade a wide range of compounds including lignin from trees, chitin and keratin from animals, and latex.

48)

______

49)

Halophiles grow equally well in the presence or absence of high salt concentrations.

49)

______

50)

All taxonomists are in agreement about the taxonomic scheme set forth in Bergeys Manual of Systematic Bacteriology.

50)

______

51)

Cocci can be spherical as well as kidney-shaped.

51)

______

52)

Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus can invade the body and cause diseases such as pneumonia and bacteremia.

52)

______

53)

Mycoplasmas are named for the large quantities of mycolic acid in their cell walls.

53)

______

54)

Most of the methane produced by methanogens is oxidized by other types of bacteria before it affects the Earths climate.

54)

______

55)

Myxobacteria exhibit traits, such as cooperation and differentiation, not normally observed in prokaryotes.

55)

______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

56)

The process by which a bacterial cell produces an endospore is called (endosporing/sporulation/vegetation).

56)

_____________

57)

The most common form of reproduction among prokaryotes is (snapping/budding/binary) fission.

57)

_____________

58)

The rod-shaped (rickettsias/chlamydias/brucella) are intracellular parasitic members of the alphaproteobacteria.

58)

_____________

59)

Some members of the alphaproteobacteria produce a structure called a (prosthecae/pilus/filament) to produce extra surface area for nutrient absorption.

59)

_____________

60)

This bacterial shape is called (bacillus/vibrio/rod).

60)

_____________

61)

The G + C content is a(n) (RNA/structural/genetic) determination used in classifying the different taxa of Gram-positive bacteria.

61)

_____________

62)

The (streptobacilli/actinomycetes/mycoplasmas) are a group of Gram-positive bacteria that form branching filaments resembling those of fungi.

62)

_____________

63)

The genus of pathogenic cocci responsible for a wide range of human disease and whose members grow in chains is (Staphylococcus/Streptococcus/Enterococcus).

63)

_____________

64)

The members of the (alphaproteobacteria/gammaproteobacteria/actinomycetes) may alternate between a flagellated motile stage and a nonmotile stage attached by means of a prosthecae.

64)

_____________

65)

The reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen (fixation/cycling).

65)

_____________

66)

Slow-growing bacteria in the genus (Mycoplasma/Mycobacterium) are able to withstand long exposure to air because of the presence of mycolic acid in their cell wall structure.

66)

_____________

67)

Plant tumors caused by Agrobacterium infections are called (galls/heterocysts).

67)

_____________

68)

The (bacilli/Lactobacilli/bacteroids) are a group of Gram-negative bacteria that include obligate anaerobes normally found in the intestinal tracts of animals and humans.

68)

_____________

69)

The infective stage of chlamydia is called the (elementary/initial) body.

69)

_____________

70)

Burkholderia is a common (true/opportunistic) pathogen of patients with cystic fibrosis.

70)

_____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

71)

Will is a graduate student working in a microbiology lab. He is given the task of characterizing a newly discovered nitrogen fixing bacterium. What type of tests or observations will help him determine whether it is a member of the Cyanobacteria, alphaproteobacteria or gammaproteobacteria?

72)

Compare and contrast methanogens and methane oxidizers, including their roles in the environment.

73)

Describe the major taxonomic divisions of prokaryotic organisms.

74)

Describe the similarities and differences observed among phototrophic bacteria.

75)

Explain the significance of endospores.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

76)

The fusion of two gametes produces a

76)

______

A)

schizont.

B)

merozoite.

C)

chromatid.

D)

centromere.

E)

zygote.

77)

Replication of the DNA occurs during

77)

______

A)

interphase.

B)

prophase.

C)

metaphase.

D)

anaphase.

E)

telophase.

78)

Sister chromatids separate and move toward the poles of the cell during ________ of mitosis.

78)

______

A)

prophase

B)

anaphase

C)

interphase

D)

metaphase

E)

telophase

79)

An aligned pair of homologous chromosomes is called a

79)

______

A)

gamete.

B)

tetrad.

C)

coenocyte.

D)

chromatid.

E)

spindle.

80)

Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED?

80)

______

A)

protozoa; usually diploid

B)

slime mold; usually haploid

C)

animals; usually diploid

D)

fungi; usually diploid

E)

plants; usually diploid

81)

Sister chromatids separate during ________ of meiosis.

81)

______

A)

telophase I

B)

anaphase II

C)

anaphase I

D)

prophase II

E)

metaphase II

82)

Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is most accurate?

82)

______

A)

Crossing over occurs during metaphase I.

B)

Haploid cells produce diploid cells.

C)

A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells.

D)

Homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase II.

E)

Meiosis has the same number of stages as mitosis.

83)

Merozoites are a result of

83)

______

A)

crossing over.

B)

meiosis.

C)

conjugation.

D)

mitosis.

E)

schizogony.

84)

Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED?

84)

______

A)

Plasmodium; merozoites

B)

Entamoeba; pseudopodia

C)

Euglena; flagellum

D)

Paramecium; two nuclei

E)

Toxoplasma; cilia

85)

Which of the following is a protozoan stage that allows for transmission of intestinal parasites from one host to another?

85)

______

A)

schizont

B)

merozoite

C)

kinetoplast

D)

cyst

E)

foraminifera

86)

Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are

86)

______

A)

algae.

B)

fungi.

C)

protozoa.

D)

insects.

E)

water molds.

87)

The ________ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism.

87)

______

A)

sporangium

B)

mycelium

C)

pseudoplasmodium

D)

hyphae

E)

conidiophore

88)

Which of the following is classified among the Alveolates?

88)

______

A)

Plasmodium

B)

Paramecium and Plasmodium

C)

foraminifera

D)

Paramecium and foraminifera

E)

Paramecium

89)

A single-celled eukaryote that is both photosynthetic and a chemoheterotroph is a(n)

89)

______

A)

euglenid.

B)

ciliate.

C)

dinoflagellate.

D)

apicomplexan.

E)

kinetoplastid.

90)

Which of the following is a protozoan with two nuclei and no mitochondria?

90)

______

A)

Trichomonas

B)

Giardia

C)

Paramecium

D)

Euglena

E)

Plasmodium

91)

Protozoa that have a single large mitochondrion and are found living in animals are

91)

______

A)

dinoflagellates.

B)

parabasalids.

C)

kinetoplastids.

D)

ciliates.

E)

amoebae.

92)

Which of the following types of protozoa contribute to limestone formation in their fossilized state?

92)

______

A)

foraminiferans

B)

euglenozoa

C)

ciliates

D)

amoebae

E)

diplomonads

93)

The asexual spores of molds are classified according to their

93)

______

A)

mode of development.

B)

shapes.

C)

size.

D)

number of chromosomes.

E)

type of metabolism.

94)

Which of the following is a cell type associated with sexual reproduction in fungi?

94)

______

A)

dikaryon

B)

haustoria

C)

pneumocyst

D)

mycorrhiza

E)

sporangiospore

95)

Fungal spores produced asexually within a sac-like chamber at the tip of a hypha are called

95)

______

A)

basidiospores.

B)

conidia.

C)

sporangiospores.

D)

ascospores.

E)

zygospores.

96)

Parasitology is the study of

96)

______

A)

both helminths and protozoa.

B)

fungi.

C)

algae.

D)

protozoa.

E)

helminths.

97)

Which of the following is a dinoflagellate whose toxin causes possible estuary-associated syndrome (PEAS)?

97)

______

A)

Pfiesteria

B)

Toxoplasma

C)

Gonyaulax

D)

Balantidium

E)

Gymnodinium

98)

The large seaweed known as kelp is classified as a member of the

98)

______

A)

Chlorophyta.

B)

Phaeophyta.

C)

Rhodophyta.

D)

Deuteromycete.

E)

Chrysophyta.

99)

Hyphae are associated with which of the following?

99)

______

A)

protozoa

B)

algae

C)

molds

D)

helminths

E)

yeasts

100)

Septate fungi are classified as

100)

_____

A)

Zygomycota.

B)

Basidiomycota.

C)

Ascomycota.

D)

Rhodophyta.

E)

Deuteromycetes.

101)

Lichens are composed of a symbiosis of fungi and which of the following?

101)

_____

A)

euglenoids

B)

euglenoids or dinoflagellates

C)

cyanobacteria

D)

green algae

E)

cyanobacteria or green algae

102)

A plasmodium is a coenocytic structure associated with

102)

_____

A)

water molds.

B)

yeast.

C)

green algae.

D)

amoebae.

E)

slime molds.

103)

The division Basidiomycota includes which of the following types of fungi?

103)

_____

A)

truffles

B)

ringworm

C)

mushrooms

D)

bread mold

E)

bakers yeast

104)

Which of the following organisms are directly beneficial to vascular plants?

104)

_____

A)

kinetoplastids

B)

euglenids

C)

lichens

D)

mycorrhizae

E)

water molds

105)

Which of the following protozoa genera helps termites digest wood?

105)

_____

A)

Nosema

B)

Trichomonas

C)

Naegleria

D)

Trichonympha

E)

Pfiesteria

106)

In a cell that has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present at the beginning of mitosis?

106)

_____

A)

32

B)

8

C)

16

D)

4

E)

2

107)

Which of the following is associated with meiosis but not with mitosis?

107)

_____

A)

a centromere

B)

a tetrad

C)

a chromatid

D)

a zygote

E)

a spindle

108)

Which of the following would be virtually indistinguishable under the microscope?

108)

_____

A)

early metaphase and early anaphase

B)

early prophase and early metaphase

C)

late metaphase and early telophase

D)

early anaphase and late anaphase

E)

late anaphase and early telophase

109)

When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, which of the following is produced?

109)

_____

A)

macronuclei

B)

merozoites

C)

coenocytes

D)

cysts

E)

chromatids

110)

The chromatids move toward opposite poles during ________ of mitosis.

110)

_____

A)

prophase

B)

metaphase

C)

telophase

D)

interphase

E)

anaphase

111)

Multiple mitoses followed by a single cytokinetic event is known as

111)

_____

A)

meiosis.

B)

encystment.

C)

coenocytic division.

D)

schizogony.

E)

interphase.

112)

The chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell during

112)

_____

A)

prophase.

B)

metaphase.

C)

prophase II.

D)

telophase.

E)

anaphase.

113)

The process in which the cytoplasm is divided between daughter cells is known as

113)

_____

A)

coenocytosis.

B)

cytokinesis.

C)

budding.

D)

meiosis.

E)

nuclear division.

114)

Which process is represented by this figure?

114)

_____

A)

meiosis

B)

budding

C)

schizogony

D)

mitosis

E)

cytokinesis

115)

Single-celled algae that are major producers of oxygen and whose cell walls are useful in a variety of products for humans are the

115)

_____

A)

kelps.

B)

cysts.

C)

ciliates.

D)

conidia.

E)

diatoms.

116)

Simple eukaryotes that carry out oxygenic photosynthesis and reproduce by means of alternation of generations are known as

116)

_____

A)

arachnids.

B)

fungi.

C)

euglenids.

D)

slime molds.

E)

algae.

117)

Single-celled organisms called ciliates are

117)

_____

A)

water molds.

B)

insects.

C)

fungi.

D)

algae.

E)

protozoa.

118)

Fungi called Deuteromycetes are not known to reproduce sexually. Nonetheless, most of them are considered members of the ________ on the basis of genetic sequences.

118)

_____

A)

Basidiomycota

B)

Sporozoa

C)

Ascomycota

D)

Zygomycota

E)

Rhizaria

119)

Multicellular organisms with hard exoskeletons, segmented bodies and four pairs of jointed legs in the adult stage are

119)

_____

A)

arachnids.

B)

insects.

C)

algae.

D)

lice.

E)

helminths.

TRUE/FALSE. Write T if the statement is true and F if the statement is false.

120)

Haploid genomes contain two sets of chromosomes.

120)

_____

121)

Fungi reproduce only asexually.

121)

_____

122)

Protozoa are eukaryotic organisms that lack a cell wall and can be unicellular or multicellular.

122)

_____

123)

Ciliates often have two kinds of nuclei that have different functions.

123)

_____

124)

In fungi, aseptate hyphae are coenocytic by definition.

124)

_____

125)

Algae can have different types of photosynthetic pigments that allow them to photosynthesize at various depths in water.

125)

_____

126)

Lyme disease is vectored by ticks.

126)

_____

127)

The classification Protozoa is not an accepted taxon because it includes members of multiple kingdoms.

127)

_____

128)

Myxamoebae act like protozoan amoebae only in the absence of water.

128)

_____

129)

Current classification of the algae is based on morphologic characteristics.

129)

_____

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

130)

The fever and chills associated with malaria are due to the release of uninucleate daughter cells of Plasmodium called (merozoites/schizonts/coencytes).

130)

____________

131)

The vegetative stage of a protozoan is called a (cyst/merozoite/trophozoite).

131)

____________

132)

The (fungi/algae/lichens) are so sensitive to pollutants they are used as indicators of environmental conditions.

132)

____________

133)

Protozoa that move and feed by the use of fine threadlike pseudopodia are called (rhizaria/amoebozoa/apicomplexa).

133)

____________

134)

The (dinoflagellates/radiolarian) are protozoa that produce cell walls composed of silica.

134)

____________

135)

The asexual reproductive spores produced at the tips of hyphae and are not enclosed in a sac are (conidiospores/ascospores/sporangiospores).

135)

____________

136)

Fungi and insects both use the nitrogenous polysaccharide (cellulose/chitin/silica) as a protective molecule in their outer surfaces.

136)

____________

137)

Water molds differ from true fungi in having (diploid/haploid) bodies.

137)

____________

138)

Modified hyphae that allow fungi to derive nutrients from other living organisms are (septate/pseudohyphae/haustoria).

138)

____________

139)

The plague is transmitted by (fleas/lice/ticks/mites)

139)

____________

140)

Lichens spread to new areas by the use of multicellular fragments called (spores/soredia/thalli).

140)

____________

141)

Multicellular algae often reproduce sexually by means of haploid and diploid individuals in a process called (separation/alternation) of generations.

141)

____________

142)

Microbiologists interested in parasitism study multicellular parasitic (insects/fungi/worms) as well as single-celled protozoa.

142)

____________

143)

Sexual reproduction in unicellular algae is accomplished by the cell acting as a (gamete/spore/zygote).

143)

____________

144)

Ticks, lice, and mosquitoes often serve as (carriers/vectors) by hosting and transmitting pathogenic microbes.

144)

____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

145)

Compare and contrast slime molds and water molds.

146)

A field biologist finds an unfamiliar single-celled organism in a sample from the surface of a marshy area. What observations or tests would make it possible to determine whether it is a protozoan, fungus or alga? Assume the PCR machine at the field station is not working, but all other equipment is.

147)

Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis using words, diagrams or both.

148)

Describe the ways in which fungi reproduce.

149)

Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

150)

In what ways do viruses differ from other pathogens?

150)

_____

A)

Viruses have no protein structure.

B)

Viruses are composed of both protein and lipid.

C)

Viruses lack cytoplasm and organelles.

D)

Viruses are composed of protein only.

E)

Viruses lack genetic material.

151)

The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?

151)

_____

A)

protection

B)

replication

C)

recognition

D)

both protection and recognition

E)

both recognition and replication

152)

A(n) ________ is a virus that infects bacterial cells.

152)

_____

A)

envelope

B)

nucleocapsid

C)

bacteriophage

D)

virion

E)

prion

153)

Which of the following is a characteristic by which viruses are classified?

153)

_____

A)

type of host

B)

type of life cycle

C)

number of chromosomes

D)

type of nucleic acid

E)

size

154)

Host specificity of a virus is due to

154)

_____

A)

the presence of an envelope.

B)

particular genes that it shares with the infected cell.

C)

the presence or absence of a cell wall on the host cell.

D)

interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.

E)

differences in size between the virus and the host cell.

155)

Which of the following is primarily responsible for the shape of a virion?

155)

_____

A)

the type of nucleic acid

B)

the specific host protein the virus targets

C)

the source of the envelope

D)

the number of segments of the viral genome

E)

the capsid

156)

How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms?

156)

_____

A)

They have only DNA for genetic material.

B)

They have no extracellular state.

C)

They have no intracellular state.

D)

They have no capsid.

E)

They cannot pass through a filter.

157)

Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structure?

157)

_____

A)

bacteriophages

B)

animal viruses

C)

viroids

D)

prions

E)

both prions and viroids

158)

Which of the following may occur in a lysogenic infection, but not a latent one?

158)

_____

A)

The prophage/provirus is replicated with the host DNA.

B)

The prophage/provirus alters gene expression in the host cell.

C)

The provirus/prophage directs the synthesis of viral proteins.

D)

The inserted viral DNA may leave the host DNA.

E)

The viral DNA integrates (inserts) into the host cell DNA.

159)

Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true?

159)

_____

A)

Viruses are classified on the basis of the taxonomy of their host organisms.

B)

Virus classes are based on the domain of the host organism.

C)

Virus classes are well established.

D)

Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.

E)

The species epithet is a Latin descriptor of the virion structure.

160)

Which of the following statements comparing virus classification and taxonomy of organisms is true?

160)

_____

A)

Both viruses and organisms are organized into classes.

B)

Only families are common to both viral classification and organism taxonomy.

C)

Genus and specific epithet are used in both classification systems.

D)

Both viruses and organisms are organized into domains.

E)

The common names of viruses are their genus and species epithet, as they are with organisms.

161)

Which of the following places stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages?
I. Synthesis
II. Assembly
III. Attachment
IV. Release
V. Entry

161)

_____

A)

I, III, V, II, IV

B)

III, V, I, II, IV

C)

I, II, III, V, IV

D)

III, II, V, I, IV

E)

V, III, II, IV, I

162)

Which of the following is associated with the attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell?

162)

_____

A)

chemical attractions

B)

receptor specificity

C)

random collisions

D)

both chemical attractions and receptor specificity

E)

random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity

163)

The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection cycle?

163)

_____

A)

entry

B)

attachment

C)

entry and release

D)

synthesis

E)

assembly

164)

Which means of entry into host cells is common to both some animal viruses and bacteriophage T4?

164)

_____

A)

endocytosis

B)

membrane fusion

C)

direct penetration

D)

both endocytosis and direct penetration

E)

endocytosis, direct penetration, and membrane fusion

165)

Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but NOT in the lysogenic cycle?

165)

_____

A)

viral protein synthesis

B)

attachment

C)

digestion of host DNA

D)

entry

E)

both digestion of host DNA and viral proteins synthesis

166)

Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?

166)

_____

A)

It speeds up the viral infection cycle.

B)

It allows the bacteriophage to destroy the host cells DNA.

C)

It enables the bacteriophage to take over the cell.

D)

The genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic phage.

E)

It allows the bacteriophage to infect cells it would not normally infect.

167)

Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage to the lytic cycle?

167)

_____

A)

UV light

B)

X-rays

C)

both UV light and X-rays

D)

both UV light and the presence of +ssRNA

E)

presence of +ssRNA

168)

Zones of clearing in cell cultures that are the result of virus infection are called plaques. Sometimes cloudy plaques are seen on bacterial cultures infected with bacteriophage. What type of viral infection might cause this appearance?

168)

_____

A)

transducing

B)

lytic

C)

lysogenic

D)

viroid

E)

prion

169)

Which of the following is matched INCORRECTLY?

169)

_____

A)

HIV; membrane fusion

B)

adenovirus; membrane fusion

C)

poliovirus; direct penetration

D)

measles virus; membrane fusion

E)

herpesvirus; endocytosis

170)

Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following?

170)

_____

A)

dsRNA viruses

B)

retroviruses

C)

dsDNA viruses

D)

+ssRNA viruses

E)

-ssRNA viruses

171)

The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA?

171)

_____

A)

ssDNA viruses

B)

+ssRNA viruses

C)

-ssRNA viruses

D)

retroviruses

E)

dsRNA viruses

172)

Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to be replicated?

172)

_____

A)

ssDNA viruses

B)

+ssRNA viruses

C)

-ssRNA viruses

D)

dsDNA viruses

E)

retroviruses

173)

In contrast to most dsDNA animal viruses, the poxviruses replicate solely in the cytoplasm of the host cell. This fact implies that the viral genome may encode

173)

_____

A)

ribosome components.

B)

a DNA polymerase.

C)

reverse transcriptase and RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase.

D)

RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase.

E)

reverse transcriptase.

174)

Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?

174)

_____

A)

the nuclear membrane

B)

the endoplasmic reticulum

C)

the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum

D)

the cytoplasmic membrane

E)

the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes

175)

A cell is infected with a virus carrying an oncogene sequence in its genome. What process may occur if the oncogene is expressed in the infected cell?

175)

_____

A)

neoplasia

B)

latency

C)

lysis

D)

lysogeny

E)

both lysis and neoplasia

176)

How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda-phage prophage?

176)

_____

A)

Lambda phage-infected cells produce virus slowly over time.

B)

All subsequent generations of HIV-infected cells carry the provirus.

C)

The HIV provirus is inactive inside the host cell.

D)

All the offspring of a cell infected with a prophage will contain the virus.

E)

The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cells DNA.

177)

Which of the following laboratory procedures is used for culturing animal viruses in the laboratory?

177)

_____

A)

both cell cultures and embryonated eggs

B)

cell cultures

C)

broth cultures

D)

embryonated eggs

E)

synthetic cytoplasm

178)

One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be involved in causing cancer by this mechanism?

178)

_____

A)

dsRNA viruses

B)

both +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses

C)

retroviruses

D)

+ssRNA viruses

E)

-ssRNA viruses

179)

Tumors invade other organs and tissues in a process called

179)

_____

A)

budding.

B)

neoplasia.

C)

latency.

D)

a plaque assay.

E)

metastasis.

180)

Plaque assays are used for

180)

_____

A)

the study of prions.

B)

determine the density of phage in a culture.

C)

evaluating the cancer-causing ability of a virus.

D)

counting the number of latent phages in a cell.

E)

cultivating viruses that cannot be grown any other way.

181)

Diploid cell cultures and continuous cell cultures differ in which of the following ways?

181)

_____

A)

longevity

B)

convenience of use

C)

source of cells

D)

both longevity and convenience of use

E)

both longevity and source of cells

182)

Viroids infect

182)

_____

A)

fungi.

B)

bacteria.

C)

plants.

D)

plants and animals.

E)

all organisms.

183)

How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?

183)

_____

A)

They lack nucleic acid.

B)

They can be destroyed by incineration.

C)

They cannot reproduce outside a cell.

D)

They cause neurological problems.

E)

They act as slow viruses.

184)

The viruses of fungi have RNA genomes and lack a capsid. They are therefore similar to

184)

_____

A)

bacteriophages.

B)

enveloped viruses.

C)

prions.

D)

lysogens.

E)

viroids.

185)

A lipid membrane is present in which of the following?

185)

_____

A)

enveloped viruses

B)

prions

C)

viroids

D)

naked viruses

E)

both prions and viroids

186)

Some human viruses are difficult to study because

186)

_____

A)

the growth medium for the host cells is complex.

B)

they only grow in normal human cells.

C)

they grow very slowly.

D)

they establish latent infections and cannot be induced.

E)

very few laboratories have the skills to culture the viruses.

187)

Double-stranded RNA genomes can be found

187)

_____

A)

only in prions.

B)

only in cells.

C)

in both prions and viruses.

D)

only in viruses.

E)

in both cells and viruses.

188)

Which of the following is a feature shared by viruses and living organisms?

188)

_____

A)

possession of a genome that directs synthesis of materials necessary for replication

B)

metabolic capability

C)

presence of cytoplasm

D)

the ability to increase in size

E)

responsiveness

189)

Small circular RNA molecules without capsids are characteristic of

189)

_____

A)

viruses and prions.

B)

viruses.

C)

prions.

D)

viroids.

E)

plasmids.

190)

Viruses are shed slowly and steadily during

190)

_____

A)

lysogenic infection.

B)

latency.

C)

lytic replication.

D)

budding.

E)

oncogenesis.

191)

During ________, viruses remain dormant in animal cells.

191)

_____

A)

oncogenesis

B)

budding

C)

persistent infection

D)

lytic replication

E)

latency

192)

Virus replication results in the death of the cell in ________ infection(s).

192)

_____

A)

a lysogenic

B)

a lytic

C)

a latent

D)

a persistent

E)

both latent and persistent

193)

A ________ is a mass of neoplastic cells.

193)

_____

A)

tumor

B)

metastasis

C)

diploid culture

D)

gall

E)

plaque

194)

The process known as ________ is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses.

194)

_____

A)

metastasis

B)

lytic replication

C)

budding

D)

persistent infection

E)

latency

TRUE/FALSE. Write T if the statement is true and F if the statement is false.

195)

Viruses cause most human cancers.

195)

_____

196)

Most viruses cannot be seen by light microscopy.

196)

_____

197)

Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack.

197)

_____

198)

Many diseases of plants are caused by infectious RNA molecules lacking capsids.

198)

_____

199)

All members of a virus family have the same type of genome structure.

199)

_____

200)

Assembly of new viruses is a process that usually requires the direction of a variety of viral and cellular enzymes.

200)

_____

201)

Bacteriophage release is a gradual process in which small numbers are released at a time.

201)

_____

202)

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is an example of a prion disease.

202)

_____

203)

All viruses use the host cells nucleic acid polymerases for replication.

203)

_____

204)

Fertilized chicken eggs are used to culture some vaccine strains.

204)

_____

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

205)

The combination of a viruss protein coat and nucleic acid core is called the (capsid/virion/nucleocapsid).

205)

____________

206)

Viral capsids are composed of subunits called (nucleocapsids/capsomeres).

206)

____________

207)

Virus infection is initiated by the specific (fit/affinity/interaction) between proteins on the surface of a virion the surface of the target cell.

207)

____________

208)

Some viruses can be cultured on (continuous/diploid/animal) cells which are descended from neoplastic cells.

208)

____________

209)

The virions shown in the figure have a (polyhedral/helical/complex) capsid.

209)

____________

210)

Another term for a lysogenic phage is a (temperate/latent/prophage) phage.

210)

____________

211)

The process in which viral capsids are removed within the infected cell is called (entry/disassembly/uncoating).

211)

____________

212)

Uncontrolled cell division in animals is known as (metastasis/neoplasia/cancer).

212)

____________

213)

RNA viruses such as HIV require the activity of reverse (transcriptase/polymerase) to become proviruses.

213)

____________

214)

In enveloped viruses, virus-encoded (matrix/capsomeres/envelope) proteins are required for the assembly of the envelope around the capsid.

214)

____________

215)

Genes that play a role in proper cell division but may also play a role in some types of cancer are called (oncogenes/protooncogenes/promoters).

215)

____________

216)

A (colony/plaque) is a clear zone on a bacterial lawn where cells have been killed by the activity of a bacteriophage.

216)

____________

217)

Three (orders/families/classes) represent the highest level of taxonomic rank used in classifying viruses.

217)

____________

218)

Prions are composed of a single protein called (plaque/BSE/PrP).

218)

____________

219)

An animal virus that does not have an envelope is described as a(n) (naked/unenveloped/capsid) virion.

219)

____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

220)

Compare and contrast the ways in which animal, plant, and bacterial viruses gain entry into their host cells.

221)

Why is the synthesis of mRNA a central issue for all viruses? How do different types of viruses achieve this goal?

222)

Describe the difference between lysogeny and latency.

223)

A scientist discovers a new virus associated with a cancer. She is able to culture it in the laboratory and begins to analyze it.What features will help her determine the virus classification? How does this help her understand the virus mechanism for causing cancer?

224)

Describe the mechanism by which PrP is infectious.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

225)

Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?

225)

_____

A)

microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus

B)

tapeworm in the human intestine

C)

tuberculosis in the human lung

D)

bacteria in the human colon

E)

protozoa in termites

226)

Mutualism is a relationship

226)

_____

A)

where one member of the relationship may kill the other.

B)

where it is difficult to prove the benefits or disadvantages one member of the relationship may provide for the other.

C)

where one member of the relationship benefits without hurting the other.

D)

that sometimes provides benefits for both members such that one or both parties cannot live without the other.

E)

where only one member derives benefit from the other.

227)

A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as

227)

_____

A)

mutualism.

B)

parasitism.

C)

commensalism.

D)

both commensalism and parasitism.

E)

a nonsymbiotic relationship.

228)

The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci is found in the lungs of most people in low numbers, but in immunocompromised people it overgrows, resulting in severe respiratory problems. The fungus is best described as

228)

_____

A)

resident microbiota.

B)

a parasite.

C)

a mutualist symbiotic partner.

D)

transient microbiota.

E)

both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.

229)

Chagas disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent?

229)

_____

A)

parenteral route

B)

contact

C)

mucous membrane portal

D)

skin portal

E)

fomite

230)

Symptoms are

230)

_____

A)

objective manifestations of a disease that can be measured.

B)

laboratory tests used to diagnose a disease.

C)

characteristics of a disease, such as sweating.

D)

subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.

E)

objective manifestations of a disease that can be observed by others.

231)

The close contact between newborns and family members allow them to become ________ with microbes that become established as their microbiota. (Choose the most accurate term.)

231)

_____

A)

colonized

B)

infected

C)

parasitized

D)

contaminated

E)

infiltrated

232)

In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for disease?

232)

_____

A)

Fungi digest the outer layer of the skin.

B)

A person receives an injection with a contaminated needle.

C)

A person is bitten by a mosquito that carries the malaria parasite.

D)

A pathogen crosses from the mother to the fetus by way of the placenta.

E)

A pathogen is introduced into the body when the person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is washed into the nasal cavity by way of tears.

233)

Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is FALSE?

233)

_____

A)

It must be possible to reisolate the suspect agent from the infected experimental host.

B)

The suspect agent must be isolated and cultured in the laboratory.

C)

The suspect agent must be present in all cases of disease.

D)

The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.

E)

The suspect agent must cause the disease under investigation when introduced into a susceptible host organism.

234)

Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota?

234)

_____

A)

Microbes enter the nose and mouth when the baby is in the birth canal.

B)

Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy.

C)

The baby acquires the residential microbiota in the colon after the first meal.

D)

Staphylococcus epidermidis is transferred from the hospital staff to the newborn after delivery.

E)

Microorganisms grow in the respiratory tract after the babys first breath.

235)

Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens?

235)

_____

A)

treatment of a cancer patient with radiation

B)

growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine

C)

growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin

D)

presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the colon

E)

growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth

236)

Which of the following is considered part of the indigenous microbiota of the female reproductive system?

236)

_____

A)

E. coli

B)

Candida

C)

Bacteroides

D)

Lactobacillus

E)

both Candida and Lactobacillus

237)

Which of the following is an example of an exotoxin?

237)

_____

A)

neurotoxin

B)

streptokinase

C)

lipid A

D)

coagulase

E)

collagenase

238)

Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body?

238)

_____

A)

enterotoxin

B)

coagulase

C)

hyaluronidase

D)

coagulase and hemolysin

E)

hemolysin

239)

Which of the following stages of an infectious disease is the most severe?

239)

_____

A)

the illness period

B)

the convalescence period

C)

the prodromal period

D)

the incubation period

E)

the decline period <

Write a review

Your Name:


Your Review: Note: HTML is not translated!

Rating: Bad           Good

Enter the code in the box below:



 

Once the order is placed, the order will be delivered to your email less than 24 hours, mostly within 4 hours. 

If you have questions, you can contact us here