Test Bank For Understanding Pathophysiology ANZ Adaptation 2nd Edition By Judy Craft Christopher Gordon

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Test Bank For Understanding Pathophysiology ANZ Adaptation 2nd Edition By Judy Craft Christopher Gordon

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WITH ANSWERS

 

Understanding Pathophysiology ANZ Adaptation 2nd Edition By Judy Craft Christopher Gordon  Test Bank 

 

Craft, Gordon: Understanding Pathophysiology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 01: Introduction to clinical science

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A sign is:

 

a. an alteration to normal body function.
b. a subjective indication of the patient experience reported by the patient.
c. an objective measurement or recording.
d. a localised response to disease.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 5

 

  1. When a patient has a set of signs and symptoms that occur together and are specific to a particular condition with an unknown cause, this is referred to as a/n:

 

a. disease.
b. disorder.
c. aetiology.
d. syndrome.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 5

 

  1. Frank presents to the emergency room at your local hospital and reports feelings of nausea and pain in the abdomen. Franks self-reported experiences are referred to as:

 

a. disorders.
b. signs.
c. symptoms.
d. syndromes.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 5

 

  1. In relation to disease, the term incidence refers to:

 

a. the number of people who have the disease at any one time.
b. the number of new cases that have been diagnosed and confirmed within a set time period.
c. the presence of several diseases in the same patient.
d. the proportion of the population with the disease.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 6

 

  1. Jane has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, and her physician has told her that she is also obese and will need to lose some weight. In Janes case, obesity is:

 

a. a comorbidity
b. a measure of mortality
c. a symptom
d. an incidence.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 6

 

  1. The sagittal plane:

 

a. divides the body into left and right.
b. refers to the exact middle of the body.
c. divides the body into upper and lower segments.
d. divides the body into front and back.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 8

 

  1. The frontal plane:

 

a. divides the body into left and right.
b. refers to the exact middle of the body.
c. divides the body into upper and lower segments.
d. divides the body into front and back.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 8

 

  1. The transverse plane:

 

a. divides the body into left and right.
b. refers to the exact middle of the body.
c. divides the body into upper and lower segments.
d. divides the body into front and back.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 8

 

  1. The nose is:

 

a. superior to the forehead.
b. medial to the ear.
c. ipsilateral to the ear.
d. dorsal to the forehead.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 9

 

  1. The term ventral refers to the:

 

a. anterior of the body.
b. posterior surface of the body.
c. medial plane of the body.
d. dorsal surface of the body.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 9

 

  1. The elbow is:

 

a. distal to the finger.
b. medial to the stomach.
c. proximal to the wrist.
d. superior to the head.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 9

 

  1. The dorsal cavity contains the:

 

a. brain and spinal cord.
b. liver and spleen.
c. heart and lungs.
d. mediastinum.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 9

 

  1. Which of the following are NOT located in the ventral body cavity?

 

a. brain and spinal cord
b. liver and spleen
c. heart and lungs
d. gallbladder and thymus

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 9

 

  1. A deficiency of oxygen in the blood is referred to as:

 

a. hypoxia.
b. hyperoxia.
c. hypoxaemia.
d. hypotension.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 10

 

  1. The prefixes a- or an- mean:

 

a. fat.
b. lack of.
c. self.
d. within.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 11

 

  1. In medical terms when something is low or deficient the prefix used is:

 

a. hypo.
b. hyper.
c. hepat.
d. heam.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 11

 

  1. In medical terms when something is equal to the prefix used is:

 

a. inter.
b. hypo.
c. leuco.
d. iso.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 11

 

  1. In medical terms suffix cyte refers to:

 

a. cell.
b. in the blood.
c. inflammation.
d. tumour.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 11

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of an element found in the human body?

 

a. carbon
b. sodium chloride
c. sodium bicarbonate
d. hydrochloric acid

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 13

 

  1. Which of the following substances is a cation?

 

a. carbon
b. calcium
c. chloride
d. hydroxide

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 13

 

  1. Which of the following substances is an anion?

 

a. hydroxide
b. hydrogen
c. nitrogen
d. magnesium

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 13

 

  1. A cation is defined as:

 

a. a positively charged ion.
b. an acid.
c. a negatively charged ion.
d. a base.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 13

 

  1. A molecule:

 

a. contains two or more different elements.
b. contains two or more of the same element.
c. contains water.
d. is an acid.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 13

 

  1. A compound:

 

a. contains two or more different elements.
b. contains two or more of the same element.
c. is an acid.
d. is a base.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 13

 

  1. The specific name for elements that carry an electrical charge is:

 

a. molecules.
b. compounds.
c. atoms.
d. ions.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 13

 

  1. A patient is given a drink that contains a substance that does not mix well with water. This substance would be described as:

 

a. hydrophilic.
b. hydrophobic.
c. lipophilic.
d. amphipathic.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 13

 

  1. In chemistry an acid is a substance that:

 

a. has a high pH.
b. releases H+ in solution.
c. does not mix with water.
d. binds H+ in solution.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 14

 

  1. When an equal number of molecules of hydrochloric acid and sodium bicarbonate are mixed together:

 

a. the solution becomes acidic.
b. the pH rises above 8.
c. the solution becomes alkaline.
d. the acid is neutralised.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 14

 

  1. The normal pH range of the blood is:

 

a. 6.337.33.
b. 7.007.50.
c. 7.357.45.
d. 7.808.00.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 14

 

  1. A patients blood results show that the arterial blood pH is 7.24. This patient:

 

a. has a pH within the normal range.
b. is suffering from an alkalosis.
c. is suffering from an acidosis.
d. has too much base in the blood.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 14

 

  1. Which of the following has the lowest pH?

 

a. bicarbonate of soda
b. soap
c. pure water
d. stomach contents

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 15

 

  1. Alkaline substances tend to:

 

a. decrease the pH of a solution they are added to.
b. taste bitter.
c. feel slippery to touch.
d. taste sour.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 14

 

  1. Enzymes are used by the body:

 

a. to provide a protective buffer around the internal organs.
b. as the main fuel source.
c. as the key structural component of cell membranes.
d. to speed up chemical reactions.

 

ANS: D                              REF: pp 15

 

  1. Lipids are made up of:

 

a. simple and complex sugars.
b. glycerol and fatty acids.
c. amino acids.
d. nucleic acids.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 16

 

  1. If the number of particles of gas within a container stays constant, and the volume of the container is reduced, then:

 

a. the pressure within the container will rise.
b. the pressure within the container will fall.
c. the pressure within the container will remain unchanged.
d. the pressure outside of the container will fall.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 17

Craft, Gordon: Understanding Pathophysiology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 03: Cellular structure and function

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A cell is observed to have a nucleolus. Which of the following would also be observed?

 

a. single circular chromosome
b. nucleus
c. freely floating nuclear material
d. no organelles

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 34

 

  1. A human cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained?

 

a. mitochondria
b. ribosome
c. nucleolus
d. nucleus

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 34

 

  1. Small granules of proteins and RNA responsible for protein synthesis are called:

 

a. ribosomes.
b. mitochondria.
c. centrioles.
d. cisternae.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 34

 

  1. An organelle that is involved in the movement of proteins and protein synthesis is called:

 

a. a ribosome.
b. a mitochondrion.
c. the Golgi apparatus.
d. the endoplasmic reticulum.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 35

 

  1. Which of the following organelles can be rough or smooth?

 

a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Lysosomes
d. Nucleus

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 35

 

  1. An organelle that receives lipids and proteins, and modifies packages and distributes them to other parts of the cell is called:

 

a. a ribosome.
b. a mitochondrion.
c. the Golgi apparatus.
d. the endoplasmic reticulum.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 35

 

  1. The term apoptosis refers to:

 

a. programmed cell death.
b. the digestion of old organelles.
c. the digestion of foreign substances such as bacteria.
d. anaerobic metabolism.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 35

 

  1. Which of the following is a function of peripheral membrane proteins?

 

a. channels
b. receptors
c. membrane pumps
d. joining cells together

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 38

 

  1. According to the fluid mosaic model, which of the following are embedded in the fluid lipid bilayer?

 

a. peripheral membrane proteins
b. integral membrane proteins
c. glycoproteins
d. cell adhesion molecules

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 38

 

  1. Plasma membrane receptors bind to:

 

a. oxygen.
b. ribosomes.
c. amphipathic lipids.
d. ligands.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 39

 

  1. Drugs that stimulate a receptor are called:

 

a. agonists.
b. antagonists.
c. amphipathic.
d. neurotransmitters.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 40

 

  1. The movement of small solute molecules through a semipermeable barrier is an example of:

 

a. osmosis.
b. diffusion.
c. hydrostatic pressure.
d. active transport.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 41

 

  1. Electrolytes are:

 

a. small lipid-soluble molecules.
b. large protein molecules.
c. micronutrients used to produce ATP.
d. electrically charged molecules.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 41

 

  1. Which of the following is true regarding the predominant extracellular cation?

 

a. It has a negative charge.
b. It migrates toward the positive pole.
c. It is sodium.
d. It is potassium.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 41

 

  1. The mechanical force of water pushing against cellular membranes is an example of which process of fluid movement?

 

a. hydrostatic pressure
b. osmosis
c. diffusion
d. active transport

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 41

 

  1. Osmosis is:

 

a. the diffusion of sodium down the concentration gradient.
b. the movement of water down its own concentration gradient.
c. a form of hydrostatic pressure.
d. a type of active transport.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 42

 

  1. A patient has a body fluid concentration of 300 mOsm/kg. This measure is termed:

 

a. osmolality.
b. osmolarity.
c. osmotic pressure.
d. effective osmolality.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 42

 

  1. How is the transport of glucose from the blood to the cell accomplished?

 

a. by active transport
b. by active diffusion
c. by passive osmosis
d. by facilitated diffusion

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 42

 

  1. A patient who has diarrhoea receives a hypertonic saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells?

 

a. Cells will become hydrated.
b. Cells will swell or burst.
c. Cells will shrink.
d. Cells will divide.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 42

 

  1. The sodium-potassium pump is an example of:

 

a. Facilitated diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Active transport
d. Filtration

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 43

 

  1. The process of cellular ingestion of large particles such as bacteria is referred to as:

 

a. protocytosis.
b. pinocytosis.
c. phagocytosis.
d. exocytosis.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 43

 

  1. The process of ingestion of fluids and solute molecules through small vesicles is referred to as:

 

a. protocytosis.
b. pinocytosis.
c. phagocytosis.
d. exocytosis.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 43

 

  1. The process of secretion of macromolecules by cells is referred to as:

 

a. endocytosis.
b. pinocytosis.
c. phagocytosis.
d. exocytosis.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 44

 

  1. A cell is observed to absorb oxygen and use it to transform nutrients to energy. Which of the following cellular functions is it displaying?

 

a. metabolic absorption
b. communication
c. secretion
d. respiration

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 45

 

  1. The term catabolism refers to:

 

a. digestion.
b. energy-using processes.
c. energy-releasing processes.
d. the citric acid cycle.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 45

 

  1. The term anabolism refers to:

 

a. digestion.
b. energy-using processes.
c. energy-releasing processes.
d. the citric acid cycle.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 45

 

  1. Which of the following is a type of loose connective tissue?

 

a. adipose tissue
b. bone
c. blood
d. cartilage

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 47

 

  1. Reticular tissue:

 

a. is a type of adipose tissue.
b. forms a scaffold for other cells.
c. is located in tendons and ligaments.
d. is cartilage.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 47

 

  1. Stratified squamous epithelial tissue is located in the:

 

a. air sacs in the lungs.
b. bladder.
c. ovary surface.
d. mouth and skin.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 47

 

  1. Transitional epithelial tissue is located in the:

 

a. air sacs in the lungs.
b. bladder.
c. ovary surface.
d. mouth and skin.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 47

 

  1. Simple cuboidal epithelial tissue is located:

 

a. in the air sacs in the lungs.
b. in the bladder.
c. on the ovary surface.
d. in the mouth and skin.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 47

 

  1. Simple squamous epithelial tissue is located:

 

a. in the air sacs in the lungs.
b. in the bladder.
c. on the ovary surface.
d. in the mouth and skin.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 48

 

  1. The muscle tissue that would cause the contraction of the stomach is:

 

a. Cardiac muscle
b. Skeletal muscle
c. Smooth muscle
d. Voluntary muscle

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 47

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a process associated with ageing?

 

a. Decreased height
b. Increased body fat mass
c. Muscle hyperplasia
d. Lengthening of the nose and ears

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 50

Craft, Gordon: Understanding Pathophysiology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 11: Alterations of endocrine function across the life span

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Abnormal responses to a hormone by target cells include:

 

a. abnormal receptor activity.
b. abnormal hormone levels.
c. increased synthesis of second messengers.
d. extracellular electrolyte alterations.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 245

 

  1. The most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is:

 

a. autoimmune disease.
b. cancer.
c. pregnancy.
d. heart failure.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 246

 

  1. A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient?

 

a. hyponatraemia
b. hyperkalaemia
c. hypernatraemia
d. hypokalaemia

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 246

 

  1. A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for SIADH. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be expected in this patient?

 

a. peripheral oedema
b. tachycardia
c. low blood pressure
d. concentrated urine

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 246

 

  1. A severe consequence of SIADH is:

 

a. stroke.
b. diabetes insipidus.
c. neurologic damage.
d. renal failure.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 246

 

  1. A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should be anticipated?

 

a. dilutional hyponatraemia
b. dehydration from polyuria
c. cardiac arrest from hyperkalaemia
d. metabolic acidosis

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 246

 

  1. A side effect of some general anesthetic agents is _____ diabetes insipidus.

 

a. neurogenic
b. nephrogenic
c. psychogenic
d. allogenic

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 247

 

  1. Clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus include:

 

a. polyuria and intense thirst.
b. concentrated urine and hypertension.
c. pitting oedema and dyspnoea.
d. full bounding pulse and vomiting.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 247

 

  1. A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following would this treatment be effective?

 

a. neurogenic diabetes insipidus
b. psychogenic diabetes insipidus
c. nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 248

 

  1. The most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism (Conns syndrome) is:

 

a. pituitary failure.
b. benign adrenal adenoma.
c. excessive salt ingestion.
d. chronic hypertension.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 248

 

  1. Laboratory investigation of a patient with hyperaldosteronism would reveal:

 

a. hypokalaemia.
b. hyperkalaemia.
c. hyponatraemia.
d. decreased urinary potassium.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 248

 

  1. Characteristic physical features of individuals with Cushings syndrome include:

 

a. weight loss and muscle wasting.
b. truncal obesity and thin skin.
c. pallor and swollen tongue.
d. depigmented skin and eyelid lag.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 250

 

  1. A 49-year-old female is diagnosed with hypercortisolism. An increase in which of the following would be expected?

 

a. protein catabolism and muscle wasting
b. fat storage and glucose utilisation
c. production and secretion of adrenal medullary hormones
d. fat, protein and carbohydrate anabolism

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 250

 

  1. Cushings disease can manifest with elevated levels of:

 

a. antidiuretic hormone.
b. oxytocin.
c. adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH).
d. aldosterone.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 249

 

  1. A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and overall abnormal feelings. CT scan reveals an adrenal cortical tumour. Lab tests reveal that the tumour is hormone secreting. Which of the following would be expected?

 

a. increased renin levels
b. hypotension
c. hypokalaemia
d. hyponatraemia

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 248

 

  1. A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would be expected?

 

a. renal toxicity
b. episodes of hypoglycaemia
c. increased bone density
d. type 2 diabetes mellitus

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 250

 

  1. Which of the following alterations would you expect to find in a patient with untreated Cushings disease or syndrome?

 

a. bradycardia
b. tachypnoea
c. hyperkalaemia
d. hypertension

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 251

 

  1. A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her disease?

 

a. a familial, autosomal dominant gene defect
b. obesity and lack of exercise
c. immune destruction of the pancreas
d. hyperglycaemia from eating too many sweets

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 253

 

  1. A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is most beneficial in confirming the diagnosis?

 

a. fasting and postprandial plasma glucose levels
b. testing urine glucose levels
c. genetic testing
d. random plasma glucose levels

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 254

 

  1. An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Before treatment he most likely experienced:

 

a. recurrent infections, visual changes, fatigue and paraesthesias.
b. polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss.
c. vomiting, abdominal pain, fruity breath, dehydration and heavy breathing.
d. weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 253

 

  1. A 19-year-old female with type 1 diabetes mellitus was admitted to hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 18 mmol/L (high); serum K+ 2 mmol/L (low); serum Na+ 130 mmol/L (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the flu for a week. What relationship do these values have with her insulin deficiency?

 

a. increased glucose utilisation causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space
b. decreased insulin causes hyperglycaemia and osmotic diuresis
c. increased glucose and fatty acid metabolism stimulates renal diuresis and electrolyte loss
d. increased insulin use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting and electrolyte loss

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 253

 

  1. Management of diabetes mellitus involves measuring glycated (glycosylated) haemoglobin (haemoglobin A1c) levels. The purpose of this test is to:

 

a. measure fasting glucose levels.
b. monitor long-term serum glucose control.
c. detect acute complications of diabetes.
d. check for hyperlipidaemia.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 254

 

  1. A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Laboratory tests would most likely reveal:

 

a. high levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies.
b. ectopic secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
c. low circulating levels of thyroid hormones.
d. stimulation of thyroid-binding globulin.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 255

 

  1. The level of triiodothyronine (T3) in Graves disease is usually abnormally:

 

a. low.
b. high.
c. variable.
d. absent.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 255

 

  1. Visual disturbances are a common oc

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