Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th Edition By Susan King Strasinger -Test Bank

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Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th Edition By Susan King Strasinger -Test Bank

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WITH ANSWERS
Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th Edition By Susan King Strasinger -Test Bank

Chapter 2: Introduction to Urinalysis

 

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

 

 

  1. All of the following are components of normal urine except:
  2. Urea
  3. Chloride
  4. Amino acids
  5. Creatinine

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 1

TOP: Urinalysis composition

 

 

 

  1. To determine if a specimen is urine, measure the concentrations of:
  2. Glucose and protein
  3. Urea and creatinine
  4. Uric acid and amino acids
  5. Protein and amino acids

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 2

TOP: Urinalysis composition

 

 

 

  1. The average daily volume of urine produced by a normal adult is approximately:
  2. 200 mL
  3. 500 mL
  4. 1200 mL
  5. 2500 mL

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urine volume

 

 

 

  1. A person exhibiting oliguria would have a urine volume of:
  2. 200 to 500 mL
  3. 600 to 1000 mL
  4. 1000 to 1500 mL
  5. more than 1500 mL

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urine volume

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following terms is correctly matched with urine output?
  2. Anuria: 400 mL in 24 hours
  3. Oliguria: 1000 mL in 24 hours
  4. Polyuria: 3000 mL in 24 hours
  5. Nocturia: no urine output

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urine volume

 

 

 

  1. The polyuria associated with diabetes mellitus is caused by:
  2. The presence of excess glucose in the urine
  3. A defect in the production of ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
  4. The diuretic effect of insulin
  5. Failure of the collecting duct to respond to ADH

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urine volume

 

 

 

  1. Urine from a patient with diabetes insipidus has:
  2. Decreased volume and decreased specific gravity
  3. Decreased volume and increased specific gravity
  4. Increased volume and increased specific gravity
  5. Increased volume and decreased specific gravity

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urine volume

 

 

 

  1. A patient with polyuria shows a high specific gravity in the urine. The patient should be evaluated for:
  2. Renal tubular acidosis
  3. Diabetes mellitus
  4. Diabetes insipidus
  5. Prostatic infection

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urine volume

 

 

 

  1. Persons taking diuretics can be expected to produce:
  2. Anuria
  3. Polyuria
  4. Nocturia
  5. Oliguria

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urine volume

 

 

 

  1. A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons except:
  2. Nonmatching label and requisition form
  3. Specimen contaminated with feces
  4. Contamination on the exterior of the container
  5. The container uses a screw-top lid

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 4

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. An unpreserved urine specimen left at room temperature overnight will have decreased:
  2. Bacteria
  3. Specific gravity and pH
  4. Glucose and ketones
  5. Color and specific gravity

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 6

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following will be least affected in an unpreserved specimen left at room temperature overnight?
  2. Bilirubin
  3. Urobilinogen
  4. Red blood cells
  5. Protein

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 7

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. Red blood cells will disintegrate more rapidly in urine that is:
  2. Concentrated and acidic
  3. Concentrated and alkaline
  4. Dilute and acidic
  5. Dilute and alkaline

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 7

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. The primary cause of the changes that take place in unpreserved urine is:
  2. Bacterial growth
  3. Excessive exposure to light
  4. Oxidation of chemical constituents
  5. Precipitation of crystals

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 8

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following urine chemicals will deteriorate when exposed to light?
  2. pH
  3. Leukocytes esterase
  4. Bilirubin
  5. Specific gravity

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 7

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is least likely to occur if a urine specimen stands at room temperature for more than 2 hours?
  2. Deterioration of formed elements
  3. Increased bacteria
  4. Decreased pH
  5. Decreased glucose

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 7

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. A urine specimen for reagent strip glucose analysis can be preserved using all of the following methods except:
  2. Refrigeration
  3. Boric acid
  4. Sodium fluoride
  5. Commercial tablets

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 8

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. A urine specimen containing a large amount of precipitated amorphous material may have been preserved using:
  2. Refrigeration
  3. Phenol
  4. Formalin
  5. Toluene

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 7

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. In the laboratory, the preferred method of urine preservation is:
  2. Refrigeration
  3. Boric acid
  4. Sodium fluoride
  5. Commercial tablets

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 9

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. A specimen for routine urinalysis and culture can be preserved using:
  2. Sodium fluoride
  3. Boric acid
  4. Formalin
  5. Toluene

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 9

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. All of the following are good preservatives of urinary cellular elements except:
  2. Boric acid
  3. Formalin
  4. Sodium fluoride
  5. Thymol

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 9

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. Before analysis, a refrigerated urine specimen must be:
  2. Warmed to 37oC
  3. Examined for crystal formation
  4. Examined for changes in color
  5. Returned to room temperature

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 9

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. The recommended specimen for routine urinalysis testing is the:
  2. Random specimen
  3. Timed specimen
  4. First morning specimen
  5. Catheterized specimen

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. The required specimen for quantitative analysis of urinary constituents is the:
  2. Midstream clean-catch specimen
  3. First morning specimen
  4. Random specimen
  5. Timed specimen

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm:
  2. Orthostatic proteinuria
  3. Fanconis syndrome
  4. Urinary tract infection
  5. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) deficiency

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. The first morning specimen from a patient with no history of symptoms for diabetes is positive for glucose. The patient should:
  2. Be given a glucose tolerance test
  3. Be asked to collect the second morning specimen
  4. Be asked to collect a timed specimen
  5. Be tested for renal tubular damage

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. The specimen of choice for routine urinalysis is the first morning urine because it:
  2. Has a high volume
  3. Is produced while the body is in a resting state
  4. Is more dilute to prevent false-positive reactions
  5. Is more concentrated to better detect abnormalities

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. All of the following specimens are acceptable for a urine culture except:
  2. Catheterized specimen
  3. Timed specimen
  4. Suprapubic aspiration
  5. Midstream clean-catch specimen

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activities should be performed on a:
  2. Timed overnight specimen
  3. First morning specimen
  4. 24-hour specimen
  5. 2-hour postprandial specimen

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. Failure to empty the bladder before beginning the collection of a timed urine specimen will:
  2. Cause falsely increased results
  3. Affect the preservation of glucose
  4. Cause falsely decreased results
  5. Adversely affect culture results

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 10

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. An alternative to the catheterized specimen is the:
  2. Fasting specimen
  3. First morning specimen
  4. Midstream clean-catch specimen
  5. Three glass collection

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. The least contaminated specimen for bacterial culture is the:
  2. Catheterized specimen
  3. Suprapubic aspiration
  4. Three glass collection
  5. Midstream clean-catch specimen

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. The three glass collection is used for the diagnosis of:
  2. Bladder cancer
  3. Urinary tract infection
  4. Diabetes mellitus
  5. Prostate infection

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. Documentation of appropriate handling of specimens for drug analysis is provided by the:
  2. Urinalysis supervisor
  3. Physician
  4. Temperature readings
  5. Chain of custody form

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

  1. The liver breaks down protein to form what waste product?
  2. Urea
  3. Amino acids
  4. Sodium
  5. Chloride

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 1

TOP: Urinalysis composition

 

 

 

  1. An increase in urine production during the night is described as:
  2. Anuria
  3. Oliguria
  4. Polyuria
  5. Nocturia

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urine volume

 

 

 

  1. Where should labels on urine specimen containers be placed?
  2. Container
  3. Lid
  4. Bottom
  5. Placement does not matter

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 6

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. Increased turbidity in urine stored at room temperature is usually caused by:
  2. Evaporation
  3. White blood cells
  4. Bacterial growth
  5. Protein precipitation

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 7

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. What is the maximum length of time a urine specimen can remain unpreserved at room temperature before testing?
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 2 hours
  4. 3 hours
  5. 6 hours

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 8

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. Which specimen(s) from a three glass collection do(es) not have to be examined microscopically?
  2. #1
  3. #2
  4. #3
  5. All should be examined

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 11

TOP: Types of specimens

 

 

 

Matching

 

 

 

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results:

  1. False-positive
  2. False-negative

 

  1. The temperature of a specimen for drug testing is 25oC when measured within 4 minutes of collection.
  2. The second sample of a three glass collection has a positive urine culture.
  3. A patient is deprived of fluids during a 6-hour timed urine collection.
  4. Aliquots from 24-hour specimens are being obtained before measuring and mixing the sample.

 

41. ANS: B DIF: Level 2 OBJ: 11

 

TOP: Types of specimens case study
42. ANS: A DIF: Level 2 OBJ: 11 TOP: Types of specimens case study
43. ANS: B DIF: Level 2 OBJ: 11 TOP: Types of specimens case study
44. ANS: B DIF: Level 2 OBJ: 11 TOP: Types of specimens case study

 

 

 

True/False

 

 

 

  1. Urine contains organic and inorganic chemicals that can vary with body metabolic functions.

 

ANS: True

DIF: Level 1

OBJ:1

TOP: Urinalysis composition

 

 

 

  1. Physicians performing urinalysis can determine whether a specimen is urine from the presence of formed elements.

 

ANS: False

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 2

TOP: Urinalysis composition

 

 

 

  1. Dietary intake does not influence urine volume.

 

ANS: False

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urinalysis volume

 

 

 

  1. Polydipsia is a symptom of both diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus.

 

ANS: True

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 3

TOP: Urine volume

 

 

 

  1. A urine specimen label should include the date and time of collection.

 

ANS: True

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 5

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. Urine that remains unpreserved at room temperature will show an increase in the concentrations of nitrate, glucose, and white blood cells.

 

ANS: False

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 7

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. A specimen delivered to the laboratory in a gray-top Vacutainer is acceptable for urinalysis.

 

ANS: False

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 9

TOP: Specimen collection/handling

 

 

 

  1. A urine bacterial culture should not be performed on a catheterized specimen.

 

ANS: False

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 10

TOP: Types of specimens

 

Chapter 14: Fecal Analysis

 

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

 

 

  1. The normal brown color of the feces is produced by:
  2. Undigested foodstuffs
  3. Urobilin
  4. Pancreatic enzymes
  5. Cellulose

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 1

TOP: Physiology

 

 

 

  1. Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of:
  2. Barium sulfate
  3. Mucus
  4. Blood
  5. Fat

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 1

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not match?
  2. Black, tarry: blood
  3. Yellow-green: barium sulfate
  4. Pale, frothy: steatorrhea
  5. Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 1

TOP: Macroscopic screening

 

 

 

  1. A black, tarry looking stool is indicative of:
  2. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding
  3. Lower GI bleeding
  4. Excess fat
  5. Excess carbohydrates

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 1

TOP: Macroscopic screening or color

 

 

 

  1. A pale, frothy looking stool is indicative of:
  2. Upper GI bleeding
  3. Lower GI bleeding
  4. Excess fat
  5. Excess carbohydrates

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 1

TOP: Macroscopic screening or color

 

 

 

  1. All of the following are secreted into the small intestine by the pancreas except:
  2. Bile salts
  3. Chymotrypsin
  4. Lipase
  5. Elastase 1

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 1

TOP: Physiology

 

 

 

  1. The recommended specimen for quantitative fecal testing is a:
  2. Specimen collected after overnight fasting
  3. 24-hour specimen
  4. 72-hour specimen
  5. Random specimen

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 7

TOP: Specimen collection

 

 

 

  1. The presence of amebic dysentery may be suspected when a stool:
  2. Has a green color
  3. Is coated with blood-streaked mucus
  4. Has an extremely foul odor
  5. Appears unusually slender

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 9

TOP: Macroscopic screening

 

 

 

  1. The unpleasant odor associated with fecal analysis is caused primarily by:
  2. Undigested foodstuffs
  3. Bile salts
  4. Bacterial metabolism
  5. Pancreatic secretions

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 9

TOP: Macroscopic screening

 

 

 

  1. Diarrhea can result from all of the following except:
  2. Disruption of the normal intestinal bacterial flora
  3. Addition of pathogenic organisms to the normal intestinal flora
  4. Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and electrolytes
  5. Increased concentration of fecal electrolytes

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

  1. Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools that have been mixed with Sudan III stain can represent:
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Soaps
  4. Neutral fats
  5. Cholesterol

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 12

TOP: Qualitative fecal fat testing

 

 

 

  1. Microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III stain, glacial acetic acid, and then heated will show small orange-red droplets that represent:
  2. Soaps
  3. Fatty acids and soaps
  4. Fatty acids and neutral fats
  5. Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 12

TOP: Qualitative fecal fat testing

 

 

 

  1. When performing microscopic examination of a stool for muscle fibers, the structures that are counted:
  2. Are coiled and stain red
  3. Contain no visible striations
  4. Have vertical and horizontal striations
  5. Have horizontal striations and stain blue

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 11

TOP: Muscle fibers

 

 

 

  1. Crystals seen in a stool after it has been mixed with acetic acid, Sudan III stain, and heated may be composed of:
  2. Neutral fats
  3. Fatty acids
  4. Cholesterol
  5. Fatty acid soaps

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 12

TOP: Qualitative fecal fats

 

 

 

  1. Wet preparations for the detection of fecal neutrophils are stained with:
  2. Gram stain
  3. Wrights stain
  4. Sudan III
  5. Methylene blue

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 10

TOP: Fecal leukocytes

 

 

 

  1. Microscopic examination of stools for fecal cells provides preliminary information as to the cause of diarrhea because:
  2. Neutrophils are present in conditions caused by toxin-producing bacteria
  3. Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall
  4. Red and white blood cells are present if the cause is malabsorption
  5. Neutrophils are present if the condition is of nonbacterial etiology

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 10

TOP: Fecal leukocytes

 

 

 

  1. Increased neutrophils in a stool sample may indicate that the patient has which of the following?
  2. Staphylococcal food poisoning
  3. Pancreatic insufficiency
  4. Lower GI bleeding
  5. Salmonella infection

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 10

TOP: Fecal leukocytes

 

 

 

  1. A positive lactoferrin latex agglutination test can indicate which of the following?
  2. Lower GI bleeding
  3. Biliary obstruction
  4. Cystic fibrosis
  5. Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 10

TOP: Fecal leukocytes

 

 

 

  1. The term occult blood in fecal analysis can indicate which of the following?
  2. Blood that is produced in the lower GI tract
  3. Blood that is produced in the upper GI tract
  4. Blood that is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen
  5. Blood that produces a black, tarry stool

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 15

TOP: Chemical testing of feces

 

 

 

  1. A negative trypsin test on a fecal sample can indicate which of the following?
  2. Pancreatic insufficiency
  3. Lactose intolerance
  4. Biliary obstruction
  5. Duodenal ulcer

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 17

TOP: Chemical testing of feces

 

 

 

  1. To prevent false-positive fecal occult blood results, patients should be instructed to avoid eating all of the following for 3 days before testing except:
  2. Horseradish
  3. Chicken
  4. Melons
  5. Red meat

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 16

TOP: Occult blood

 

 

 

  1. Before and during collection of a sample for quantitative fecal fats, a patient should:
  2. Consume 100 g of fat per day
  3. Consume less than 10 g of fat per day
  4. Increase usual fat intake by 20%
  5. Maintain a soft or liquid diet

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 14

TOP: Quantitative fecal fat testing

 

 

 

  1. The coefficient of fat retention should be at least:
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 95%
  5. 100%

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 14

TOP: Quantitative fecal fat testing

 

 

 

  1. The most sensitive fecal enzyme test for the diagnosis of pancreatic insufficiency measures:
  2. Lipase
  3. Trypsin
  4. Elastase 1
  5. Chymotrypsin

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 17

TOP: Fecal enzymes

 

 

 

  1. A bloody stool from a neonate should be emulsified in water, centrifuged, and the supernatant tested with:
  2. Clinitest
  3. Guaiac reagent
  4. Gelatin
  5. NaOH

 

ANS: D

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 17

TOP: Fetal hemoglobin

 

 

 

  1. Tests for the detection of occult blood rely on which chemical reaction?
  2. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide
  3. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
  4. Reaction of hemoglobin with peroxidase
  5. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 15

TOP: Guaiac-based fecal occult blood tests

 

 

 

 

  1. In the Van de Kamer method for quantitative fecal fat determinations, fecal lipids are:
  2. Homogenized and titrated to a neural end-point with sodium hydroxide
  3. Measured gravimetrically after washing
  4. Converted to fatty acids before titrating with sodium hydroxide
  5. Measured by spectrophotometer after addition of Sudan III

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 14

TOP: Quantitative fecal fat testing

 

 

 

  1. A patient whose stool exhibits increased fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have:
  2. Lactose intolerance
  3. Cystic fibrosis
  4. A duodenal ulcer
  5. A bacterial dysentery

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 17

TOP: Qualitative fecal testing

 

 

 

  1. A stool pH of 5.0 correlates with a:
  2. Positive Apt test
  3. Negative trypsin test
  4. Positive Clinitest
  5. Negative occult blood test

 

ANS: C

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 17

TOP: Carbohydrates

 

 

 

  1. A bloody stool produced by a newborn should:
  2. Have an Apt test performed on it
  3. Be tested with guaiac reagent
  4. Be emulsified and tested for trypsin
  5. Have a Clinitest performed on it

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 17

TOP: APT test

 

 

 

  1. False-negative results for upper GI bleeding can be caused by:
  2. Degradation of hemoglobin to porphyrin
  3. Ingestion of excessive red meat
  4. Aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents
  5. Ingestion of excessive folic acid

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 16

TOP: Occult blood

 

 

 

  1. When performing the Apt test, a pink color that remains in the supernatant during testing indicates:
  2. The presence of fetal hemoglobin
  3. Denaturation of fetal hemoglobin
  4. Denaturation of maternal hemoglobin
  5. The presence of maternal hemoglobin

 

ANS: A

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 17

TOP: APT test

 

 

 

NARRBEGIN: 14-nar-01

Microscopic screening of a pale, frothy stool from a patient with prolonged diarrhea is performed for fecal neutrophils, fats, and meat fibers. The fecal neutrophil examination result is negative, increased large and small orange droplets are seen in the fat stains, and 10 unstriated muscle fibers are observed.

NARREND

 

 

 

  1. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the pale, frothy stool?
  2. Biliary obstruction
  3. Lactose intolerance
  4. Malnutrition
  5. Dumping syndrome

 

ANS: A

NAR: 14-nar-01

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 8

TOP: Microscopic analysis case study

 

 

 

  1. Based on the information provided, what type of diarrhea is suggested by these results?
  2. Secretory
  3. Rapid gastric emptying
  4. Osmotic
  5. Altered motility

 

ANS: C

NAR: 14-nar-01

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 3

TOP: Microscopic analysis case study

 

 

 

  1. Based on the information provided, absence of what substance most likely accounts for the increased orange droplets?
  2. Elastase 1
  3. Bile salts
  4. Amylase
  5. Trypsin

 

ANS: B

NAR: 14-nar-01

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 13

TOP: Microscopic analysis case study

 

 

 

  1. Based on the information provided, what is the condition indicated by the increased orange droplets?
  2. Inflammation
  3. Secretory diarrhea
  4. Constipation
  5. Steatorrhea

 

ANS: D

NAR: 14-nar-01

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 5

TOP: Microscopic analysis case study

 

 

 

  1. Based on the information provided, how long should the slide for muscle fibers be examined?
  2. 2 minutes
  3. 5 minutes
  4. 7 minutes
  5. 10 minutes

 

ANS: B

NAR: 14-nar-01

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 11

TOP: Microscopic analysis case study

 

 

 

NARRBEGIN: 14-nar-02

State whether or not the following scenarios should be of concern to a laboratory supervisor and why:

NARREND

 

 

 

  1. An Apt test performed on a black, tarry stool is negative for fetal hemoglobin.
  2. Concerned; the hemoglobin is already denatured
  3. Not concerned; the black, tarry stool indicates the presence of blood

 

ANS: A

NAR: 14-nar-02

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 17

TOP: APT test

 

 

 

  1. In the evaluation of a stool specimen, the results were abnormal in the trypsin test and normal in a chymotrypsin test.
  2. Concerned; the trypsin test is more sensitive than the chymotrypsin test
  3. Not concerned; chymotrypsin is more resistant to degradation

 

ANS: B

NAR: 14-nar-02

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 17

TOP: Chemical analysis

 

 

 

  1. Quantitative fecal fat testing performed on a patient maintained on a diet of 100 g of fat per day is 5 g per day. The coefficient of fat retention is reported as normal.
  2. Concerned; the normal coefficient of fat is 100%
  3. Not concerned; 95% retention is normal

 

ANS: B

NAR: 14-nar-02

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 14

TOP: Quantitative fecal fat testing

 

 

 

  1. An unusual number of positive occult blood tests are reported by a new employee in a satellite clinic.
  2. Concerned; patients may not be receiving dietary instructions
  3. Not concerned; the employee has passed the competency test on performing the test

 

ANS: A

NAR: 14-nar-02

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 16

TOP: Occult blood

 

 

 

  1. A strongly positive stool Clinitest performed on an infant is accompanied by a stool pH of 8.0.
  2. Concerned; a low pH coincides with a positive Clinitest
  3. Not concerned; the result is strongly positive

 

ANS: A

NAR: 14-nar-02

DIF: Level 3

OBJ: 17

TOP: Carbohydrate tests

 

 

 

NARRBEGIN: 14-nar-03

State whether each of the following scenarios relates to osmotic diarrhea, secretory diarrhea, or altered motility:

NARREND

 

 

 

  1. Shigella dysentery
  2. Osmotic diarrhea
  3. Secretory diarrhea
  4. Altered motility

 

ANS: B

NAR: 14-nar-03

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

  1. Irritable bowel syndrome
  2. Osmotic diarrhea
  3. Secretory diarrhea
  4. Altered motility

 

ANS: C

NAR: 14-nar-03

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

  1. Lactose intolerance
  2. Osmotic diarrhea
  3. Secretory diarrhea
  4. Altered motility

 

ANS: A

NAR: 14-nar-03

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

  1. Gastrectomy
  2. Osmotic diarrhea
  3. Secretory diarrhea
  4. Altered motility

 

ANS: C

NAR: 14-nar-03

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

  1. Malabsorption
  2. Osmotic diarrhea
  3. Secretory diarrhea
  4. Altered motility

 

ANS: A

NAR: 14-nar-03

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

  1. Staphylococcal food poisoning
  2. Osmotic diarrhea
  3. Secretory diarrhea
  4. Altered motility

 

ANS: B

NAR: 14-nar-03

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

  1. Tests for quantitative fecal fats include all of the following except:
  2. Van de Kamer
  3. Lipocrit capillary test
  4. Near-infrared reflectance spectrophotometry
  5. Acid steatocrit test

 

ANS: B

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 14

TOP: Qualitative fecal fats

 

 

 

True/False

 

 

 

  1. The electrolyte content of normal feces is similar to that of plasma.

 

ANS: True

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 1

TOP: Physiology

 

 

 

  1. Microbial infections produce osmotic diarrhea.

 

ANS: False

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 3

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

  1. A stool that appears black and tarry may be associated with bismuth ingestion.

 

ANS: True

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 8

TOP: Macroscopic appearance

 

 

 

  1. The neutral fat and split fat stains are confirmatory tests for steatorrhea.

 

ANS: False

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 6

TOP: Qualitative fecal fats

 

 

 

  1. Staphylococcal food poisoning produces secretory diarrhea and increased fecal neutrophils.

 

ANS: False

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 3

TOP: Fecal neutrophils

 

 

 

  1. The guaiac test detects both hemoglobin and porphyrin.

 

ANS: False

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 15

TOP: Occult blood

 

 

 

  1. The Apt test should not be performed on a black, tarry stool.

 

ANS: True

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 17

TOP: APT test

 

 

 

  1. The D-xylose and lactose tolerance tests are abnormal in persons with malabsorption or maldigestion disorders.

 

ANS: True

DIF: Level 1

OBJ: 6

TOP: Carbohydrates

 

 

 

  1. Steatorrhea is seen in association with decreased elastase 1 in the feces.

 

ANS: True

DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 5

TOP: Diarrhea and steatorrhea

 

 

 

 

 

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